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UPSC PRELIMS QUESTION PAPERS

2006 PRELIMS ORIGINAL GS QUESTION PAPER

1.Who among the following laid the foundation of Rashtrakuta Empire?
       a) Amostghavarsha I   b) Dantidurga
       c)Dhruva                     d) Krishna I
Explanation-----------------------------------------------
Dantidurga laid the foundation of Rashtrakuta Empire. It’s original name was Dantivarman.
 
2. The initial design and construction of which massive  temple took place during the reign of Suryavarman II?
      a) Sri Mariamman Temple
      b) Angkor Vat Temple
      c) Batu Cavas Temple
      d)Kamakhya Temple
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Angkor vat temple was built in (1113-1150) by Suryavarman II in Combodia. The temple is dedicated to Lord Vishnu.
 
3. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
     a)States Reorganization Act: Andhra Pradesh
     b)Treaty of Yandabu: Assam
     c)State of Bilaspur: Himachal becomes a State
     d)Year 1966: Gujarat becomes a State
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Gujarat became a state on first may, 1960, It was carved out of Bombay (Northern part of Bombay where the majority was of Gujarati).
 
4. Consider the following statements:
      1.The Charter Act, 1853 abolished East India Company monopoly of Indian trade.
       2.  Under the government of India Act, 1858 the British Parliament abolished the East India Company altogether          
      and undertook the responsibility of ruling India directly.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
       a) 1 only               b) 2 only
       c) Both 1 and 2    d) Neither  1nor 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
The Charter Act, 1853 abolished East India company monopoly of Indian trade.  Hence, the answer is (b)
 
5. When Raja Wodeyar founded the Kingdom of Myore, who was the ruler of the Vijaynagar Empire?
      a)Sadasiva                b) Tirumala
      c) Ranga II                d) Venkata II
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
When Raja Wodeyar founded the Kingdom of Mysore, Venkata II was the ruler of the Vijayanagar Empire.
 
6. Between which of the following was the ancient town of Takshasila located?
      a) Indus and Jhelum   b) Jhelum and Chenab
      c) Chenab and Ravi    d) Ravi and Beas
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Ancient town of Takshasila located between the Indus and Jhelum
 
7. With reference to the invaders in ancient India, which one of the following is the correct chronological order?
       a)   Greeks – Sakas – Kushanas
       b) Greeks – Kushanas – Sakas
       c)Sakas – Greeks – Kushanas
       d) Sakas – Kushanas – Greeks
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
With referent to the invaders in ancient India, Greeks – Sakas – Kushans is the correct chronological order.
 
8. Consider the following statements:
       1. The Ikshvaku rulers of Southern India were antagonistic towards Buddhism
       2. The Pala Rulers of Eastern India were Patrons of Buddhism.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
       a) 1 only            b) 2 only
       c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
The Ikshvaku rulers of Southern India were the supporters of Buddhism.  Hence, statement 1 is  incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
 
9. Which one of the following revolts was made famous by Bankim Chandra chatterjee in his novel ‘Annd Math’?
       a) Bhil uprising
       b) Rangpur and Dinapur uprising
       c) Bishnupar and Birbhum rebellion
       d) Sanyasi rebellion
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Sanyasi rebellion was made famous by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his novel ‘Anand Math’.
 
10. In the year 1613, where was the English East India Company given permission to set up a factory (trading post)?
       a) Bangalore      b) Madras
       c) Masulipattam d) Surat
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
In the year 1613, in Surat the English East India Company was given permission to set up a factory (trading post).
 
 
11. With reference to the ‘revolt of the year’ who of the following was betrayed by ‘friend’ captured and put to death   
        by the British?
a) Nana Sahib               b) Kunwar Singh
c) Khan Bahadur Khan d) Tantia Tope
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
With reference to the revolt of the year 1857, Tantia Tope was betrayed by a friend captured and put to death by the British.
 
12. Under whose presidency was the Lahore Session of the Indian Congress held in the year 1929, wherein a resolution was adopted to gain complete independence from the British?
      a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
      b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
      c) Jawaharlal Nehru
      d) Motilal Nehru
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Under Jawaharlal Nehru presidency was the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress held in the year 1929, where in a resolution was adopted to gain complete independence from the British.
 
13. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
      a)Vikramsila Monastery : Uttar Pradesh
      b)Hemkund Gurudwara : Himachal Pradesh
      c)Udayagiri Caves : Maharashtra
      d) Amaravati Buddhist Stupa : Andhra Pradesh
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
        a) Vikramsila Monastery : Bihar
        b)Hemkand Gurudware : Uttaranchel
        c)Udayagiri : Orissa
 
   14. Assertion (A): Muhammad bin Tughlaq issued a new gold coin which was called Dinar by Ibn Batutah.
    Reason (R): Muhammad bin Tuhluq wanted to issue token currency in gold coins to promote trade with West        
    Asian and North African countries.
    Codes:
            a)Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
            b)Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
            c)A is true but R is false.
            d) A is false but R is true.
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Statement A is correct, but R is false.  Hence the answer is c)
 
15. The Allahabad Pillar inscription is associated with which one of the following?
                  a) Mahapadma Nanda
                  b)  Chandragupta Maurya
                  c)  Ashoka
                  d) Samudragupta
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
The Allahabad Pillar inscription is associated with Samudragupta.
 
16. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Afghan rulers to the throne of Delhi?
         a) Sikandar Shah – Ibrahim Lodi – Bahlol Khan Lodi
         b) SIkandar Shah – Bahlol Khan Lodi or Lodin Ibrahim 
         c) Bahlol Khan Lodi or Lodin Sikandar Shah – Ibrahim Lodi of Lodin
         d) Bahlol Khan Lodi or Lodin Ibrahim Lodi or Lodin Sikandar Shah
    Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
    The correct chronological order of the Afghan rulers to the throne of Delhi is: Bahlol Khan lodi (1451 – 1489),         
   Sikandar Shah (1489 – 1517), Ibrahim Lodi (1517 – 1526).
 
17. Bhakta Tukaram was a contemporary of which Mughal emperor?
          a) Babar     b) Akbar
          c) Jehagir   d) Aurangzeb
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
The period of Bhaki Tukaram is considered in between 1608 – 1649.
The period of Jehangir is 1605 – 1627.
The period of Shahjehan is 1627 – 1657.  Since there is no option of Shah Jahan, Jehangir is a better choice.
 
18. In Indian history, who was Abdul Hamid Lahori?
      a) An important military commander during Akbar reign.
      b) An official historian of the reign of Shah Jahan.
      c) An important noble and confident of Aurangzeb.
      d) A chronicler and poet during the reign of Muhammad Shah.
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Abdul Hamid Lahori was an official historian of the reign of shah Jahan.  He wrote the book ‘Padshah – Nama’.
 
19. Who was the Governor – General of India during the Sepoy Mutiny?
     a) Lord Canning  b) Lord Dalhousie
     c) Lord Hardings d) Lord Lytton
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Lord Caning was the Governor – General of India during the Sepoy Mutiny (1858 – 1862)
 
20. Consider the following statements about Madam Bhikaji Cama:
         1.Madam Cama unfurled the National Flag at the International Socialist Conference in Paris in the year 1907.
         2. Madam Cama served as private secretary to Dadabhai Naoroji.
         3. Madam Cama was born to Parsi.
 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
 a) 1,2 and 3       b)  2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only   d)  3 only
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
       Madam Cama unfurled the National flag at the International Socialist Conference in Stutt guard of Germany in the          
       year 1907.
 
21. Which portfolio was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in the Interim Government formed in the year 1946?
       a) Defence
       b) External Affairs and Commonwealth Relations
       c) Food and Agriculture
       d) None of the above
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Food and Agriculture portfolio was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in the Interim Government formed in the year 1946.
 
22. Match List I (Finding/Invention/Calculation) with List II (Ancient Indian Scholar) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
          List I                                          List II
A. Time taken by the 
earth to orbit the sun                      1.Aryabhatta
B. Calculation of the 
value of (pi)                                    2. Bhaskaracharya
C. Invention of the 
digit zero                                         3. Budhayana
D. The game of snakes
and ladders                                    4. Gyandev
Codes:
    A B C D
a) 2 4 1 3
b) 1 3 2 4
c) 2 3 1 4
d) 1 4 2 3
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
     A. Time taken by the 
earth to orbit the sun 2. Bhaskaracharya
      B. Calculation of the 
value of (pi) 3. Budhayana
     C. Invention of the 
digit zero 1. Aryabhatta
      D. The game of snakes
and ladders 4. Gyandev
 
23. Recently Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh governments signed a memorandum of Understanding for the linking       
       of two rivers as a link project. Which are these two rivers?
      a) Betwa and Chambal     b) Betwa andKen
      c)Chambal and Son         d) Ken and Narmada
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Recently Uttar Pradesh Madhya Pradesh and Central Govt. signed the Memorandum of Understanding to link the rivers of Betwa and Ken.
 
24. Where is the Central Water and Power Research Station located?
         a) Khadakwasla    b) Sileru
         c)Jamnagar           d) Srisailam
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Central water and power research station was established in 1936 in Khadakwasla Pune (Maharashtra)
 
25. Projected and Development India Limited is mainly engaged in design engineering, procurement and supervision of  
      construction / commissioning in which area?
      a) Pharmaceutical plants
      b) Petroleum refineries and sugar factories
      c) Ship – building yards
      d) Fertilizer and allied chemical plants
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Projects and Development India Limited is mainly engaged in design engineering, procurement and supervision of construction/commissioning in Fertilizer and allied chemical plants.
 
26. Where is DAVOS, the venue of the annual meeting of World Economic Forum; located?
       a) France           b) Germany
       c) Switzerland    d)  Luxemburg
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
DAVOS is a tower in East Switzerland where three events are organized yearly
       1. Spengler cup Ice Hockey
       2. Annual meeting of World Economic Forum
       3. Annual Meeting of Global Politics and Business Elites 
 
27. Consider the following statements:
        1. The Richter scale is a logarithmic scale and so an increase of 1 magnitude unit represents a factor of 10 times               
           in amplitude.
       2. Each integer reading of the Richter scale has an energy 100 times that the previous integer reading.
      Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
        a)  1 only                b) 2 only
        c) Both 1 and 2       d) Neither 1 nor 2
 Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
 Each integer reading of the Richter scale has an energy 32 times that of the previous integer reading.  Hence,     
 statement (2) is not correct.  Statement (1) is correct
 
28. Consider the following statements:
       1.  Assam shares a border with Bhutan and Bangladesh.
       2. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan and Nepal.
       3. Mizoram shares a border with Bangladesh and Myanmar.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
       a) 1,2 and 3       b) 1 and 2 only
       c)2 and 3 only    d) 1 and 3 only
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
All the three statements given in the question are correct. Hence, the answer is (a) 
 
29. Match List I (Place of Archaeological Monument) with List II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
                           List I                                      List II
     (Place of Archaeological Monument)         (State)
       A. Sisupalgarh                                       1. Assam
       B. Piprahwa                                           2. Manipur
       C. Goalpara                                           3. Orissa
       D. Bishnupur                                         4. Uttar Pradesh
Codes:
    A B C D
a) 2 4 1 3
b) 2 1 4 3
c) 3 4 1 2
d) 3 1 4 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
List I List II
(Place of Archaeological Monument) (State)
       A. Sisupalgarh 3. Orissa 
        B.Piprahwa 4. Uttar Pradesh 
       C. Goalpara 1. Assam
       D.Bishnupur 2. Manipur
 
30. Consider the following statements:
      1. Sikkim has the minimum area among the 28 Indian states (Delhi and Pondicherry not included)
      2. Chandigarh has the highest literacy rate among Pondicherry, National Capital Territory of Delhi and other Union 
      Territories.
      3. Maharashtra has the highest population after Uttar Pradesh among the 28 Indian States (Delhi and Pondicherry        
      not included)
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
        a) 1 and 2    b) 2 and 3
        c)1 only        d) 3 only
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Statement 3 is correct only. The minimum area is of Goa and that is 3702 sq.km.  the area of Sikkim is 7096 sq.km.  highest Literacy rate among the Union Territories is of Lakshadweep that is 86.7% (for Chandigarh it is 81.9%).
 
31. Match List I (Centre of Handicrafts) with List II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
                         List I                   List II
           (Centre of Handicrafts)    (States)
       A. Mon                                1. Arunachal Pradesh
       B. Nalbari                            2. Assam
       C.Nasighat                          3. Meghalya
       D.Tura                                 4. Nagaland
Codes:
    A B C D
a) 4 2 1 3
b) 1 3 4 2
c) 4 3 1 2
d) 1 2 4 3
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
List I List II
(Centre of Handicrafts) (States)
A. Mon 4. Nagaland 
B. Nalbari 2. Assam
C. Nasighat 1. Arunachal Pradesh 
D. Tura 3. Meghalya
 
32. In which State is the Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Youth Development located?
      a) Tamil Nadu            b) Karnataka
      c)Himachal Pradesh  d) Uttaranchal
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Youth Development located in Tamil Nadu.
 
33. In which one of the following oceans Diamantine Trench situated?
      a) Pacific Ocean   b) Atlantic Ocean
      c)Indian Ocean     d) Arctic Ocean
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Diamantine Trench is situated in Indian Ocean. This is the deepest trench in Indian Ocean.  The depth is 1040 m.
 
34. Consider the following statements:
      1. Petronet LNG Ltd.  is setting up another LNG terminal at Magalore.
      2. The Head Office of the Dredging Corporation of India is at Visakhapatnam.
      3. The Narwapahar Mine is operated by the Uranium Corporation of India Limited.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
       a) 1,2 and 3             b) 1 and 2, only
       c)2 and 3, only         d) 1 and 3 only
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
All the three statements given in this question are correct. Hence the answer is (a) 
 
35. Assertion (A): The percentage of net Sown area in the total area of Andhra Pradesh is less as compared to that of       
      West Bengal.
Reason (R):  The soil of most of Andhra Pradesh is laterite.
Codes:
      a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
      b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
      c) A is true but R is false.
      d) A is false but R is true.
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Statement A is correct and R is false.  Net sown area Andhra Pradesh = 40%
West Bengal = 60%
 
36. Assertion (A): To orbit around the sun the planet Mars takes lesser time than the time taken by the Earth.
Reason (R): The diameter of the planet mars is less than that of Earth.
Codes:
      a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
      b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
      c) A is true but R is false.
      d) A is false but R is true.
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
A is incorrect Time taken by Mars to orbit around Sun is 1.88 years.
 
37. Consider the following statements in respect of India advanced satellite INSAT – 4A.
       1. INSAT -4A was launched in December, 2005from New Mexico.
        2. The European Commercial Launch Service Provider Arianespace was associated with the launch of INSAT -4A.
        3. Tata-Sky; a digital cable service provider; is associated with DTH television broadcasting service from INSAT -4A.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
         a) 1,2 and 3         b) 1 and 2 only
         c)2 and 3 only     d) 1 and 3 only
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
INSAT -4A was launched on 22 December, 2005 from French Guiana.  Hence, statement (1) is incorrect.
 
38. Bermuda Triangle extends up to which of the following places?
      1. Southern Florida
      2. Puerto Rico
      3. Hawaii Islands
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
       a) 1,2 and 3   b) 1 and 2 only
      c)2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3only
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Bermuda Triangle extends up to Southern Florida and Puerto Rico.  Bermuda Triangle is in triangular shape, the third point is Bermuda.
 
39. Which one of the following countries is not a member of the Nordic Council?
       a) Norway        b) Denmark
       c)Iceland          d) United Kingdom
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Members of the Nordic Council are 
Denmark, Norway, Iceland, Swedan and Finland.
United Kingdom is not the member of this council.
 
40. Claims to the historical Macedonian territory have been a bone of contention between which of the following countries?
       a) Portugal and Spain
       b) Bulgaria and Greece
       c) Romania and Bulgaria
       d) Portugal and Greece
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Claims to the historical Macedonian territory have been a bone of contention between the Bulgaria and Greece.
 
41. Huangpu River flows through which one of the following cities?
       a) Beijing      b) Ho Chi Minh City
       c)Shanghai   d) Manila
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Huangpu River flows through Shanghai.  It’s total length is 97 km.  it is the major source of drinking water for the people of Shanghai.
 
42. Which one of the following countries is the leading producer of Uranium?
       a) United States of America
       b) Canada
       c) Germany
       d) Zambia
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Canada is the largest producer of Uranium. It produces 29% of the world Uranium, Australia is 2nd in the list with 18%.
 
43. Consider the following statements:
1. Appellate Tribunal for Electricity has been established by each State Government in India.
2. One of the component of the Accelerated Power Development and Reforms Programme (APDRP) is up gradation of sub-transmission and distribution system for electricity in India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
        a) 1 only                 b) 2 only
        c)Both 1 and 2       d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
In the year of 2003 Appellate Tribunal for Electricity Act was passed by the Government under which states were directed to create State Electricity Regulatory Commissions.  But in states like Delhi and Orissa electricity has been privatized hence, statement 1 is not correct.  Statement 2 is correct.
 
44. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Monastery State
a) Dhankar Monastery Himachal Pradesh
b) Rumtek Monastery Sikkim
c) Tabo Monastery Himachal Pradesh
d) Kye Monastery Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Kye monastery is situated in Himachal Pradesh in 12 km.  north of Kaza.  Hence, (d) is not correctly matched.
 
45. Match List I (Valley) with List II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
                      List I                List II
                    (Valley)           (State)
       A. Markha Valley         1. Sikkim
       B. Dzukou Valley        2. Himachal Pradesh
       C.Sangla Valley          3. Jammu and Kashmir
       D. Yumthang Valley    4. Nagaland
Codes:
            A B C D
       a)  2 4 3 1
       b)  3 1 2 4
       c)  2 1 3 4
       d)  3 4 2 1
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
List I List II
(Valley) (State)
       A. Markha Valley 1. Sikkim
       B. Dzukou Valley 2. Himachal Pradesh
       C. Sangla Valley 3. Jammu and Kashmir
       D. Yumthang Valley 4. Nagaland
 
46. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
       a) Mahanadi River rises in Chattisgarh
       b) Godavari river rises in Maharashtra
       c) Cauvery River rises in Andhra Pradesh
       d) Tapti River rises in Madhya Pradesh 
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Cauvery river rises in Karnataka from Brahm Giri in Kodagu district.
 
47. Where is Bundala Biosphere Reserve which has been recently added to the UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) network located?
       a) Russia         b) India
       c)Sri Lanka      d) Bangladesh
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Bundala Biosphere Reserve which has been recently added to the UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) network is located in Sri Lanka.  Central National Park of Bundala is also situated at the same place.
 
48. Consider the following statements:
     1. According to the census 2001, Kerala has the smallest gap in male and female literacy rates among the 28 states of     
      India (Delhi and Pondicherry not included)
     2. According to the Census 2001, Rajasthan has literacy rate above the national average literacy rate.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
      a) 1 only              b) 2 only
c)Both 1 and 2          d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Both the statements are incorrect.  In statement 1it’s Mijoram not Kerala.  In statement 2 Rajasthan Literary Rate = 60.4%.  National Literacy Rate = 64.8%
 
49. Which one of the following is countries is the first country in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to    
       address global warming?
       a) Australia         b) Germany
       c)Japan              d) New Zealand 
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
New Zealand is the first country in the world to propose a carbon tax for its people to address global warming in the year 2005.
 
50. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
    a) Solvenia Bratislava
    b) Seychelles Victoria
    c) Sierra Leone Freetown
    d) Uzbekistan Tashkent
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Bratislava is the capital of Slovakia hence, (a) is not correctly matched. The capital of Slovenia is Ljublijana.
 
51. Consider the following statements:
      1. Length of a terrestrial mile is lesser than that of a nautical mile.
      2. Harmattan is a dusty land-wind of the East African Coast.
      3. Greece and Albania form a part of the Iberian peninsula.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
       a) 1,2 and 3              b) 2 and 3 only
       c)3 only                     d) 1 only
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Statement 1 is correct 2 and 3 are incorrect
Nautical mile = 1852 mtrs.
Terrestrial mile = 1609 mtrs.
 
52. Match List I (National Park / Wildlife Sanctuary) with List II (Nearby Town) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
                          List I                                List II
(National Park / Wildlife Sanctuary) (Nearby Town)
       A. Chandra Prabha                    1. Jaipur
       B. Karera                                    2. Jhansi
       C. Jaisamand                             3. Agra
       D. Nahagarh                               4.Varanasi
                                                          5. Udaipur
Codes:
    A B C D
a) 4 1 5 2
b) 4 2 3 1
c) 4 2 5 1
d) 5 1 3 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
List I List II
(National Park / Wildlife Sanctuary) (Nearby Town)
        A. Chandra Prabha 4.Varanasi
       B. Karera 2. Jhansi
       C. Jaisamand 5. Udaipur
       D. Nahagarh 1. Jaipur
 
53. Which one of the following countries is not a member of the commonwealth of Independent States (CIS)?
      a) America             b) Belarus
      c)Estonia               d)Georgia
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Estonia became themember of E.U. in the year of 2004 (not of CIS)
 
54. What was the main reason for which Niger was in the news in recent times?
      a) Many deaths due to AIDS
      b) Fierce civil war
      c) Intense fighting with Algeria
      d) Famine and starvation
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Famine and starvation was the main reasons for which Niger was in the news in recent times.
 
55. From North towards South, which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given rivers in India?
a) Shyok – Spiti – Zaskar – Satluj
b) Shyok – Zaskar – Spiti – Satluj
c) Zaskar – Shyok – Satluj – Spiti
d) Zaskar – Satluj – Shyok – Spiti
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
The correct sequence of the given rivers in India from North to South is:
Shyok – Zaskar – Spiti – Satluj
 
56. Through which one of the following groups of countries does the Equator pass?
a) Brazil, Zambia and Malaysia
b) Coloumbs, Kenya and Indonesia
c) Brazil, Sudan and Malaysia
d) Venezuela, Ethiopia and Indonesia
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Groups of countries through which Equator passes is as follows: Colombia, Kenya and Indonesia
 
57. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Well – known Place      Country
a) Baikonour               Russia
b) Kourou French       Guiana
c) Borobudur              Indonesia
d) Cannes                  France
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Baikonour is situated in Kazakhsistan not in Russia. Its earlier name was Lennissk.
 
58. Other than India and China, which one of the following groups of countries border Myanmar?
a) Bangladesh, Thailand and Vietnam
b) Cambodia, Laos and Malaysia
c) Thailand, Vietnam and Malaysia
d) Thailand, Laos and Bangladesh
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Group of countries bordering Myanmar is:  Thailand, Laos and Bangladesh.
 
59. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
Railway Zone Headquarters
a) North – Eastern Railway : Gorakhpur
b) South – Eastern Railway :Bhubaneshwar
c) Eastern Railway   : Kolkata
d) South – East Central Railway  : Bilaspur
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Head office of Southern – Eastern Railways zone is Kolkata.
 
60. Recently with which country government did ONGC – Mittal Energy Limited (OMEL) sign a joint – venture deal of $6 billion with infrastructure, refinery and power?
      a) Colombia    b) Venezuela
      c)Nigeria         d) Saudi Arabia
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
ONGC – Mittal Energy Ltd. (OMEL) has signed a joint – venture with Nigeria.
 
61. Which one of the  following companies is associated with the exploration and commercial production of oil in Barmer – Sanchor basin of Rajasthan?
a) Carin Energy
b) Unocal Corporation
c) Reliance Energy Ventures
d) Oil and Natural Gas Commission
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Cairn Energy is associated with exploration and commercial production of OVL in Barmer – Sanchor basin.
 
62. Which one of the following Indian banks is not a nationalized bank?
a) Corporation Bank    b) Dena Bank
c)Federal Bank            d) Vijaya Bank
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Federal Bank is not a nationalized bank.  This bank is a private bank in the state of Kerala.
 
63. What is Indo Next which was launched in January, 2005?
a) A new scheme to promote Indian tourism.
b) A new scheme to promote export of Indian handicrafts.
c) An association 
d) An alternative trading platform being promoted by the Mumbai Stock Exchange and Regional Stock Exchanges.
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Indo Next is an alternative trading platform being promoted by the Mumbai Stock Exchange and Regional Stock exchange.
 
64. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBMA) concerns:
a) Fiscal deficit only
b) Revenue deficit only
c) Both fiscal deficit and revenue deficit
d) Neither fiscal deficit nor revenue deficit
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Fiscal responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBMA) concerns both fiscal deficit and revenue deficit.  FRBMA came into effect on 5th July, 2004.  It was declared on 2nd July, 2004.
 
65. Consider the following statements in respect of welfare schemes launched by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India.
1.Drinking water for rural areas is one of the components of the Bharat  Nirman Plan.
2.In the National Rural employment Guaantee Act 2005 there is a provision that the statutory minimum wage applicable to agricultural workers in the State has to be paid to the workers under the Act.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only                b) 2 only
c)Both 1 and 2      d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Statement 1 as well as statement 2 regarding the welfare schemes launched by Ministry of Rural Development are correct.
 
66. Assertion (A): Balance of Payments represents a better picture of a country economic transaction with the rest of the world than the alance of trade
Reason (R): Balance of Payments takes into account the exchange of both visible and invisible items whereas alance of Trade does not.
Codes: 
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
 
67. Which one of the following countries is not a member of ASEAN?
a) Vietnam           b) Brunei Darussalam
c)Bangladesh      d) Myanmar
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Bangladesh is not the member of ASEAN.  Out of ten member of ASEAN maximum countries are f south east.
Country Took Membership in 
Brunei Darussalam 1984
Vietnam 1995
Myanmar 1997
 
68. Match List I (Person) with List II (Organization/Area of Work) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
                      List I                         List II
         A. Chandra Kochh ar           1. Advertising
         B. Amrita Patel                    2. Banking
        C. Indra Nooyi                      3. Dairy Development
         D. Piyush Pandey               4. Pepsi Co
Codes:
    A B C D
a) 2 1 4 3
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 2 3 4 1
d) 4 1 2 3
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
List I List II
A. Chandra Kochh ar 2. Banking
B. Amrita Patel 3. Dairy Development
C. Indra Nooyi 4. Pepsi Co 
D. Piyush Pandey 1. Advertising
 
69. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005:
1. Under the provisions of the Act, 100 days of employment in a year to every household whose adult member volunteer to do unskilled manual work has become a fundamental right.
2. Under the provisions of the Act, women are to get priority to the extent that one – half of persons who are given employment are women who have asked for work.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only            b) 2 only
c)Both 1 and 2  d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Both the given statements are incorrect. Provision given in statement 1 is a legal guarantee not the fundamental right.  In statement 2 it is not ½ but it is 1/3 women.
 
70. Consider the following statements:
1. The agreement on South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) came into effect from 1st December, 2005.
2. As per SAFTA agreement terms, India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka have to decrease their custom duties to the level of 0 to 5 per cent by the year 2013.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
      a) 1 only               b) 2 only
      c)Both 1 and 2     d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
The agreement on South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) came into effect from 1 Jan. 2006.  The time limit given in the statement 2 is 1 Jan, 2009.
 
71. Consider the following statements:
1.In India, during the financial year 2004 – 2005 an increase of below 10% over the value of exports (in rupee terms) in the financial year 2003 – 2004 was reported.
2.According to the WTO, India share in the world merchandise exports crosses 2% in the year 2005.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only             b) 2 only
c)Both 1 and 2   d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Both the statements are incorrect, the figure given in statement 1 is  15% and the figure given in statement 2 is 1%.
 
72. Consider the following statements:
1.Life Insurance Corporation of India is the oldest insurance company in India.
2.National Insurance Company Limited was nationalized in the year 1972 and made a subsidiary of General Insurance Corporation of India.
3. Headquarters of United Indian Insurance Company Limited are located at Chennai.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3     b) 1 and 2 only
c)2 and 3 only  d) 1 and 3 only
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Oriental Life Insurance company, Calcutta (Kolkata) is the oldest insurance company in India (1818).  Life Insurance corporation of India was created in the year of 1956.
 
73. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Service tax is a / an:
a) Direct tax levied by the Central Government
b) Indirect tax level by the Central Government
c) Direct tax levied by the State Government 
d) Indirect tax levied by the State Government
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Service Tax is indirect tax levied by Central Government
 
74. Which is the correct chronological sequence of the major events given below?
1.SLV – 3 Launch
2.Formation of Bangladesh
3.Sikkim becomes twenty – second state of the Indian Union
4. Pokharan – First Nuclear test
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
      a) 2431   b) 3124
      c)2134    d) 3421
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
The correct sequence is:
2.Formation of Bangladesh
4. Pokharan – First Nuclear test
3.Sikkim becomes twenty – second state of the Indian Union
1.SLV – 3 Launch
 
75. With reference to the Government of India various programmes, what is Nirmal Gram Puraskar?
a) It is an incentive scheme of scholarships for the single girl child in families in villages.
b) It is an incentive scheme of scholarships for female sportspersons from villages who represent their states in any game.
c) It is an incentive scheme for schools in the villages for computer education.
d) It is an incentive scheme for Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Nirmal Gram Puraskar is an Incentive scheme for Panchayati Raj institutes to maintain hygiene and comeliness.
 
76. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields 
b) Agriculture 
c) Fisheries
d) Public health
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Agriculture, Fisheries and Public health are given in State List.
 
77. Consider the following statements:
1.There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
2.The Constitution of India does not define backward classes.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only           b) 2 only
c)Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1nor 2
Explanation-----------------------------------------------
Statement 1 is incorrect under Act 39 (d) of the Constitution of India the above given condition has been mentioned.  Statement 2 is correct.
 
78. Consider the following statements:
1.The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matterin the State List.
2.Resolutions approving the proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only           b) 2 only
c)Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1nor 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List (Art. 249).  Statement 2 is incorrect.
 
79. What does the 104th  Constitution Amendement Bill related to?
a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain states.
b) Introducing of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin living outside India.
c) Providing quota to socially and educationally backward classes in private educational institutions.
d) Providing quota for religious minorities in the services under the central Government.
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
104th Constitution Amendment Bill related to provide quota to socially and educationally backward classes in private educational institutions.
 
80. Assertion(A): In India, every State has a High Court in its territory.
Reason(R): The Constitution of India Provide a High Court in each State.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Statement A is incorrect.  In India there are 28 States and 7 UTs but only 21 High Court are there.
 
81. Consider the following statements:
1.Free and compulsory education to the children of 6 – 14 years age – group by the State by the seventy – sixth Amendment to the Constitution of India
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent list by the Forty – second Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3    b) 1 and 2 only
c)2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Free ad compulsory education to the children of 6 -14 years age – group by the State was made a Fundamental Right by the Eighty – sixth Amendment to the Constitution of India.  Hence drop point 1.
 
82. Who was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interested Litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian Judicial System?
a) M. Hidayatullah    b) A.M.Ahmadi
c)A.S.Anand             d) P.N.Bhagwati
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
P.N. Bhagwati was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian Judicial System. P.N. Bhagwati was the Chief Justice of India during the period of 1985 – 86.
 
83. Which one among the following commission was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India?
a) University Grants Commission
b) National Human Rights Commission
c) Election Commission
d) Central Vigilance Commission
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Election Commission was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India. (25 January 1950)
 
84. Consider the following statements:
1.A person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India except of the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless the territory  of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only             b) 2 only
c)Both 1 and 2   d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Both the statements 1 and 2, are correct Refer Art. 217 in case of statement 1 and refer Art. 220 in case of Statement 2.
 
85. What does the tem Dolby B or Dolby C printed on tape-recorders and other sound systems refer to?
a) Frequency Modulated System
b) Amplitude Modulated System
c) Noise Reduction Circuit
d) Both DC and AC power can be used
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
The term Dolby B or Dolby C printed on tape – recorders and other sound systems refer to Noise Reduction Circuit.  Dolby is a company which has developed this Noise Reduction Circuit.
 
86. In which one among the following is the speed of sound maximum?
a) Air at 00C    b) Air at 1000C
c)Water            d) Wood
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Speed of sound in the medium:
1.Air at 00-331.45 m/sec
2.Air at 1000c – 387.4 M/sec
3.Water -1500 m/sec
4. Wood – 3800 m/sec
 
87. In which one of the following areas did the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research make significant progress in the year 2005?
a) Reprocessing the uranium – plutonium mixed carbide fuel of the Fast Breeder Test Reactor.
b) New application of radioisotopes in metallurgy.
c) A new technology for production of heavy water.
d) A new technology for high level nuclear waste management.
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research has made significant progress in the year 2005 in reprocessing  the uranium – plutonium mixed carbide fuel of the Fast Breeder  Test Reactor.
 
88. To which one of the following process is the term CMYK releted?
a) Railway signaling      b) Navigation
c)Offset Printing            d) Electronic voting machine
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
The term CMYK is related to offset printing
C =Cyan, M= Magenta, Y=Yellow, K= Key (Black)
 
89. Which one of the following is printed on a commonly used fluorescent tube light?
a) 220k      b) 273k       c) 6500k d) 9000k
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
6500k is printed on a commonly used fluorescent tube light.
 
90. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Inventor Invention
1.Christopher Hovercraft Cockerell
2.David Bushnell Submarine
3.J.C.Perrier Steamship
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
a) 1,2 and 3        b) 1 and 2 only
c)2 and 3 only     d) 1 and 3only
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
All the three combinations are correct.
 
91. What is the approximate mean velocity with which the earth moves round the sun in its orbit?
a) 20 km/s    b) 30 km/s
c)40 km/s     d) 50 km/s
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
The approximate mean velocity with which the Earth moves round the Sun in its orbit 30 km/s (precisely it is 29.8 km/s)
 
92. Which of the following substances are found in the beach sands of many parts of Kerala?
1.Ilmenite 2. Zircon
3. Sillimanite 4. Tungsten
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
a) 1,2,3 ad 4     b) 1,2 and 3 only
c)3 and 4 only  d) 1 and 2 only
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Firstly these substances are found in  Kollam district in Kerala.  These substances are found in the beach sands.
 
93. Which are the materials generally employed as solder in soldering operations in electronics?
a) Iron and tin
b) Lead and tin
c)  Aluminium and lead
d)  Aluminium and iron 
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Lead and tin are the materials generally employed as solder in soldering operation s in electronics.
 
94. Consider the following chemicals:
1.Benzene
2.Carbon tetrachloride 
3.Sodium carbonate
4.Trichloroethylene
Which of the above is/are used as dry cleaning chemical?
a) 1 only                 b) 2 only
c)1,2 and 4 only     d) 1,2,3 and 4
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Other than sodium carbonate all these chemicals are used in drycleaning.
 
95. Consider the following statements:
1.Caffeine, a constituent of tea and coffee is a diuretic.
2.Citric acid is used in soft drinks.
3.Ascorbic acid is essential for formation of bones and teeth.
4. Citric acid is a good substitution ascorbic acid in our nutrition.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and  2 only    b) 1,2 and 3 only
c)3 and 4 only      d) 1,2,3 and 4
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Citric Acid is the substitute of melic acid not of ascorbic acid.  Hence, drop point (4)
 
96. Assertion (A): Cellulose is used in making shatter –proof glass.
Reason (R): Polysaccharides are not soluble in water.
Codes:
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Cellulose is not soluble in water that why it is used in making shatter – proof glass. R explains A.  Hence, the answer is (a)
 
97. Consider the following statements
1.ELISA test is employed as the first and most basic test for an individual to detect cancer.
2.Almost 50% of human beings have Rh+ blood while the remaining have Rh- blood.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only             b) 2 only
c)Both 1 and 2   d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
ELISA test is employed as the first and most basic test for an individual to detect HIV.  Statics given in the second statement is not correct.  85% of human being posses Rh+ and 15% are Rh-.
 
98. What is the name of the vessel that delivers the nutrient rich blood from the stomach and small intestine to the liver?
a) Left hepatic artery    b) Hepatic vein
c)Right hepatic artery   d) Hepatic portal vein
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Hepatic portal vein delivers the nutrient rich blood from the stomach and small intestine to the liver.
 
99. Consider the following statements with reference to human body:
1.The common bile duct releases its contents into stomach.
2. The pancreatic duct releases its contents into duodenum.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only            b) 2 only
c)Both 1 and 2  d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Statement 1 is not correct while statement 2 is correct.  Hence, the answer is (b)
 
100. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Recent Scientific Achievement         Country
a) Creating the world first 
Mouse with a full human
Chromosome                                        U.K
b) Cloning a human embryo
for the first time                                 Germany
c) Guiding a spacecraft for 
collision with a comet                          U.S.A
d) Landing a spacecraft on 
an asteroid                                         Japan
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Cloning a human embryo for the first time took place in United States of America.
 
101. Which one of the following is not a good source of nutrition calcium?
a) Rice                    b) Ragi
c) Skimmed Milk     d) Egtg
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Rice is not a good source of nutritional calcium.  It is only 19 mg. in 100 mg. of rice.
 
102. Consider the following statements:
1.Meningococcal Meningitis is transmitted from person to  person by mosquito bites.
2.Vomiting and neck pain are two of the symptoms of Meningococcal Meningitis.
Which of the statements(s) given above is / are correct?
a) 1 only                    b) 2 only
c)Both 1 and 2          d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Statement 1 is incorrect.  Meningococcal Meningitis is transmitted from person to person through cough and having a body contact on a regular basis.
 
103. Match List I (Indian Scientist/Scholar) with List Ii (Area of work) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
                           List I                    List II
           A) C.N.R. Rao                   1. Telecommunication
           B) Jagdish Bhagwati         2. Physics
          C) G.N. Ramachandran     3. Economics
          D) Ashok Jhunjhunwala     4. Solid State 
                                                    Chemistry and Material Science 
Codes:
    A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b)2 1 4 3
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 2 3 4 1
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
List I List II
A) C.N.R. Rao 4. Solid State 
B) Jagdish Bhagwati 3. Economics
C) G.N. Ramachandran 2. Physics
D) Ashok Jhunjhunwala 1. Telecommunication
Chemistry and Material Science
 
 
104. In which country is the committee which selects winners for Nobel Peace Prize located?
a) Norway   b) Sweden
c)Finland    d) Denmark
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Nobel Peace Prize Committee is located in Norway since 1901
 
105. In which Olympic Games did India last win a Gold Medal?
a) Montreal (1976)
b) Moscow (1980)
c) Los Angele (1984)
d) Atlanta (1996)
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
It was eighth Olympic in Moscow (1980) in which India won the last gold medal. (Itochey)
 
106. Who among the following directed the film chosen as India official entry for of 2006 Academy Awards?
a) Adoor Gopalakrishnan
b) Amol Palekar
c) Sanjoy Leela Bhansali
d) Kunal Kohil
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
‘Paheli’ a flim directed by Amol Palekar was chosen as India’s official entry for Academy award of 2006.
 
107. Which one among the following was awarded the CSIR Diamond Jubilee Technology Award – 2004 in September, 2005 by the Prime Minister of India?
a) Infosys Technologies Ltd.
b) Midas Communication Technologies
c) Tata Consultancy Services
d) Biocon India Ltd.
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Midas Communication Technologies was awarded the CSIR Diamond Jubilee Technology Award – 2006 for the development of Cor – Dect WLL.
 
108. Who is the President of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research?
a) President of India
b) Vice – President of India
c) Prime Minister of India
d) Union Minister of Science and Technology
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Prime Minister of India is the president of Council of Scientific and Industrial Research, it was created in the year of 1942.
 
109. Indian Airlines are have redesigned their logo which is a graphic wheel.  This logo has been inspired from which one of the following?
a) Hampi Temple
b) Mamallapuram Temple
c) Sun Temple of Konark
d) Khajuraho Temple
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Indina Airlines have redesigned their logo which is a graphic wheel.  This logo has been inspired from Sun Temple of Konark. 
 
110. Match List I (Person) with List II (Area of Distinction) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
               List I                       List II
A. E.C.G. Sudarshan         1. Theatre
B. V. Shanta                       2. Violin
C. T.N. Krishnan                3. Research in Physics
D. Mahesh Dattani            4. Cancer treatment
                                         5. Water harvesting
Codes:
   A B C D
a) 3 1 2 4
b) 2 4 5 1
c) 3 4 2 1
d) 2 1 5 4
 
111. What is the Universal Product Code (UPC) adopted for?
a) Fire safety code in building
b) Earthquake – resistant building code
c) Bard code
d) Against adulteration in eatables
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Universal Product Code (UPC) is adopted for Bar code.
 
112. For which sport is the Val Barker Cup awarded in the Olympic Games?
a) Swimming b) Boxing
c)Long Jump d) High Jump
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Val Barker Cup awarded in the Olympic Games for Boxing sport event.
 
113. What is the new administrative capital proposed for Myanmar?
a) Bassein   b) Mandalay
c)Myitkyina  d)Pyinmana
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Pyinmana is the new administrative capital proposed for Myanmar. The official declaration has been made on the date of 7th November, 2005.
 
114. When did Croatia defeat in the Davis Cup – 2005 Finals to win the Davis Cup – 2005?
a) United states of America
b) Slovak Republic
c) Argentina
d) Spain
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Croatia defeated Slovak Republic in the Davis Cup – 2005.  Finals and win the Davis Cup – 2005.
 
115. Who among the following is a Hindustani classical singer?
a) Geeta Chandran
b) Leela Samson
c) Gangubai Hangal
d) Swapnasundari
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Gangubai Hangal is a Hindustani Classical Singer.  She belongs to Krishana gharana of Indian Classified Music.
 
116. Zayed bin Sultan – al -   Nahyan was a long serving President of which of the following?
a) Oman                         b) Kuwait
c)United Arab Emirates  d) Saudi Arabia
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Zayed bin Sultan – al – Nahyan was a long serving President of United Arab Emirates. He served his country for the period of thirty years.
 
117. Consider the following statements:
1.Kofi Annan, the UN Secretary General is from Nigeria.
2.Kofi Annan is the First UN Secretary General to be appointed form the ranks of the United National Staff.
3.Kofi Annan was appointed for a second term to the office of the UN Secretary General.
Which of the statement given above are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3           b) 1 and 2 only
c)2 and 3 only        d) 1 and 3 only
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Kofi Annan: The UN Secretary General is from Ghand.  Drop Statement 1 and select the answer.
 
118. Which one of the following countries was not a participation team in the Football World Cup – 2006?
a) Russia           b) Togo
c)Ivory Coast     d) Switzerland
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Russia was not a participating team in the Football World Cup – 2006 held in Germany in July.
 
119. Consider the following statements:
1. The Noble Prize Awarding Ceremony takes place on December 10, of every year.
2. The Nobel Prize for Literature was added later on to the other five areas: Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine, Peace and Economics.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only           b) 2 only
c)Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1nor 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
The Noble Prize for Economics was added later on to the other five areas: Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine, Peace and Literature in the year of 1968.  Hence, statement 2 is incorrect and 1 is correct.
 
120. What is Medecins Sans Frontieres (MSF)?
a)An agency formed by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) to check misuse of the drugs by sportspersons.
b) A non-governmental organization which specializes in international humanitarian aid and emergency medical assistance.
c) An organization to develop applications of nanotechnology in Medicine.
d) An organization of medical practitioners funded by the Europena Union which carries out research against spread of AIDS.
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Medecins Sans Frontieres is a  non-governmental organization which specializes in international humanitarian aid and emergency medical assistance.  MSF is a French world.  MSF was established in the year of 1971 by a doctor of France.  MSF got Nobel Prize in the year of 1999 for Peace.
 
121. In which one of the following films did the Noble Laureate Pearl S. Buck collaborate?
a) Shatranj Ke Khilari
b) Guide
c) Lawrence of Arabia
d) Titanic
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Noble Laureate Pearl S. Buck Collaborated in the film ‘Guide’
 
122. ‘Lectures from Colombo to Almore’ is based on the experience of which one of the following?
a) Veer Savarkar
b) Annie Besant
c) Ramkrishan Paramhansa
d) Swami Vivekanand
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Lectures from Colombo to Almore is based on the experience of Swami Vivekanand.  This book is also called the charter for Modern India.
 
123. Match List I (Leading Woman Lawn Tennis Player) with List Ii (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
                                List I               List II
         A. Daniela Hantuchova        1. Russia
         B. Patty Schnyder                2. Slovakia
         C. Nadia Patrova                  3. France
         D. Amelie Mauresmo            4. Switzerland
Codes:
       A B C D
a)    2 1 4 3
b)    3 4 1 2
c)     2 4 1 3
d)     3 1 4 2
 
124. Which one of the following is not a Central University?
a) Pondicherry 
b) Maulana Azad National Urdu University, Hyderabad
c) Vishva Bharti, Shanti Niketan
d) University of Madras (Chennai)
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
University of Madras (Chennai) is not a Central University. This information is based on the declaration of University Grant Commission.
 
125. Match List I (Person) with List II (Area of Work) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
                         List I                                  List II
          A. Ela Bhatt                            1. Theatre training
          B. Mahashweta Devi              2. Women labour Sector
          C. Ebrahim Alkazi                  3. Management teaching
          D. Vijay Govindaraja              4. Literature and social work  for the country tribal 
                                                              communities
Codes:
   A B C D
a) 3 1 4 2
b) 2 4 1 3
c) 3 4 1 2
d) 2 1 4 3
 
126. Who among the following wrote ‘The Communist Manifesto’ along with Karl Marx?
a) Emile Drukheim    b) Friedrich Engels
c)Robert Owen         d) Max Weber
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Friedrich Engels wrote ‘The Communist Manifesto’ along with Karl Marx (published on 21 February, 1848).
 
127. Who among the following was presented with the Snageet Natak Akademic Ratna Award, 2005 for her lifetime achievement in dance?
a) Chandralekha
b) Tanjavur Balasaraswati
c) Uma Sharma
d) Yamini Krishnamurthy
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Chandralekha was presented with the Sangeet Natak Akademi Ratna Award, 2005 for her lifetime achievement in dance.
 
128. Who is Wole Soyinka?
a) A well – known economist
b) A well – known football player
c) A well – known industrialist owning steel plants in many parts of the world
d) A Nobel Prize winner for literature
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Wole Soyinka is a Noble Prize winner for literature in the year of 1986.
 
129. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
  Well – known company               Major area of work
a) Adobe system                            India Software
b) Sasken                                       Communication 
                                                       technology
c) Genpact                                     Power generation
d) Synthite                                     Export of spices
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Genpact is related to trade & technology services.
 
130. Match List I (Author) with List II (Book) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
                         List I                        List II
        A. Amartya Sen            1. An ordinary person Guide to empire
        B. Bimal Jalan              2. The Argumentative Indian
        C. Arundhati Roy         3. The Future of India
        D. Mani Shankar Aiyar 4. Confessions of a Secular
                                                     Fundamentalist
 
131. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Prominent Indian Writer Language
a) Raja Rao : Telugu
b) Gobind Trimbuk Deshpande : Marathi
c) Subramaniyam Bharati : Tamil
d) Tara Shankar Joshi : Gujarati
Explanation-----------------------------------------------
Raja Rao is a writer of novels and short stories in English languages.
 
132. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
                   List I                          List II
      A. Harold Pinter             1. Director – General, FAO
      B. Jacques Diouf            2. President, European 
          Commission
     C. Jose Manuel 
         Barroso                        3. World Bank appoint inted  expert for adjudicating on the Baglihar Hydel Project
     D.Raymond Lafitte           4. Lilterature
Codes:
    A B C D
a) 4 3 2 1
b) 2 1 4 3
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 2 3 4 1
 
133. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a) Sigmund Freud : Paychoanalysis
b) Anna Freud : Child psychiatry
c) Milton Friedman : Economics
d) Eric R. Kandel : Literature
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Eric R. Kandel is a psychiatrist and Neuro – scientist.
 
134. Which one among the following was the first to legalize Euthanasia?
a) Austria         b) Switzerland
c)Netherlands  d) Canada
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Netherlands among the given countries is first to legalize euthanasia.
 
135. How many numbers are there in all from 6000 to 6999 (Both 6000 and 6999 included) having?
a) 216        b) 356         c) 496            d) 504
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Numbers between 6000 and 6999 of four digit =1000
Numbers of the given number of those where all the digit differs.  Hence, 1000 10x9x8x7 = 1000 504=496.
 
136. Each of two women and three men is to occupy one chair out of eight chairs, each of which numbered form 1 to 8.  First, women are to occupy any two chairs from those numbered 1 to 4; and then the three men would occupy any three chairs out of the remaining six chairs.  What is the maximum number of different ways in which this can be done?
a) 40        b) 132          c) 1440           d) 3660
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
One woman is sitting on one chair out of the four given.  So she can sit in four different ways.
Second woman can sit on anyone chair in three different ways.  So the different ways of sitting becomes 4 x 3 = 12. The ways of sitting of three men out of remaining six chairs is 6p3 = 6 x 5 x 4 = 120
 
137. In a tournament, each of the participants was to play one match against each of the other participants.  Three players fell ill after each of them had played three matches and had to leave the tournament.  What was the total number of participants at the beginning, if the total number of matches played was 75?
a) 08         b)10            c) 12           d) 15
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Suppose number of players in beginning = x
Three players fell  ill hence, the number remains = x-3
Three players played three matches hence, number of matches = 3 x 3 = 9
Number of matches played by the remaining players (other than the ill players) = 75- 9 =66
Mathces played by (x-3) players
Comparing (i) with (ii) 
and  
The positive value that is 15 will be taken into account. Hence the answer is (d)
 
138. P, Q, R and T reside in a five – storeyed (Ground + 4) building, and each of them resides on a separate floor. Further:
1.T does not reside on the topmost floor.
2.Q does not reside on the ground floor.
3.S resides on one storey above that of P and one storey below that of R.
To know as the which one of the five persons resides on the ground floor which of the above statements are sufficient / insufficient?
a) 1 and 3 are sufficient
b) 2 and 3 are sufficient
c) 1,2 and 3 are sufficient
d) 1,2 and 3 are insufficient
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Statement 1,2 and 3 are insufficient
 
139. A box contains five sets of balls, has one color which is different from every other set what is the least number of balls that must be removed from the box in order to claim with certainty that a pair of balls of the same colour has been removed?
a) 6          b) 7          c) 8              d) 9
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
1 2 3 4 5
1 1 1 1 2
1+ 1+ 1+ 1+ 2 =6
 
140. There are three parallel straight lines.  Two points, A and B are marked on the first line, points C and D are marked on the second line, and points, E and F, are marked on the third line.  Each of these 6 points can move to any position on its respective straight line.
Consider the following statements:
1.The maximum number of triangles that can be drawn by joining these points is 18.
2. The minimum number of triangles that can be drawn by joining these points is zero.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only             b) 2 only
c)Both 1 and 2   d) Neither 1nor 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
According to above figure there are more than 18 triangles can be drawn. So statement one is not correct.
When there is overlapping between the two points on the same line and all the points put in a straight line (vertically) no possibility of triangle arises.
 
141. A mixed doubles tennis game is to be played between two teams (each team consists of one male and one female).  There are four married couples. No team is to consist of a husband and his wife.  What is the maximum number of games that can be played?
a) 12             b) 21           c) 36          d) 42
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Married couples: MF MF MF MF
         A B, C D, E F, G H
Possible teams:  AD CB EB GB
       AF CF ED GD
       AH CH EH GF
Team AD can play only with: CB, CF, CH, EB, EH, GB, GF ( 7 teams)
Team AD cannot play with: AF, AH, ED and GD
The same will apply with all teams. So No. of total matches = 12 x 7 = 84.
But every match includes 2 teams, so the actual No. of matches = 84/2 = 48.
 
142. In an office, the number of persons who take tea is twice the number of persons who take only coffee.  The number of persons who take coffee is twice the number of persons who take both coffee and tea.
Consider the following statement:
1.The sum of the number of persons who take either tea or coffee or both is four times the number of persons who take both coffee and tea.
2. The sum of the number of person who take only coffee and those who tea only tea is twice the number of persons who take both tea and coffee.
Which of the statement(s) given above is / are correct?
a) 1 only                 b) 2 only
c)Both 1 and 2        d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
x represents – Persons who take tea only
z represents – Persons who take coffee
y represents – Persons who take tea and coffee both 
from the figure it is clear that the sum of the number of persons who take only coffee and those who take only tea is twice, the number of persons who take both tea and coffee. 
 
143. 3 digits are chosen at random from 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8 and 9 without repeating any digit.  What is the probability that their product is odd?
a) 2/3         b) 5/108              c) 5/42      d) 7/48
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Every digit must be odd if their product is odd. The ways of selecting 3 odd digits our of 5.
The way of selecting 3 odd digits out of  9
Probability  
 
144. 
What is the value of X in figure III ?
a) 4 b) 16 c) 25 d) 36
The value of x in figure III is 36.  In every figure the sum of square route of all corner digits comes in middle box.  Hence, underfoot of 9 = 3
Underfoot 64 = 8, underfoot of 1 = 1
3+8+1 = 12
18-12 = 6 (6)2 = 36
 
145. Each of the six faces of a cube is numbered by one of the six digits from 1 to 6.  This cube is shown in its four different positions in the figure I, II, III, and IV
 
Consider the following statements,
1.Figures II and III are sufficient to known as to which face is  opposite to the  face numbered 6.
2.Figures II and III are sufficient to known as to which face is opposite to the face numbered 4.
3.Figure I and IV are sufficient to known as to which face is opposite to the face numbered 3.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only    b) 1 and 2 only
c)2 and 3 only     d) 1,2 and 3
 
146. Each of the five persons A, B, C, D and E possesses unequal number (<10) of similar items, A, B and C possess Twenty – one items in all, while C, D and E possess seven items in all.  How many items do A and B possess in all?
a) 15         b) 17          c) 18            d) Data insufficient
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
According to question 
A+B+C = 21
and C+D+E = 7
The value of C can be 1,2,4.
If C=1, then A+B=20 (not possible)
If C=2, then A+B = 19(not possible)
If C = 4, then A+B = 17 (Possible)
Thus the value of A and B are either 8,9 or 9,8 respectively.  Hence, the total number of items with A and B = 17.
 
147. There are eight equidistant points A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in the clockwise direction on the periphery of a circle.  In a time interval t, a person reaches from A to C with uniform motion while another person reaches the point E from the point B during the same time interval with uniform motion. Both the persons move in the same direction along the circumference of the circle and start at the same instant.  How much time after the start, will the two persons meet each other?
a) 4t              b) 7t                  c) 9t               d) Never
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
According to the figure given above the circumference of the circle is divided into eigtht equal parts.  Suppose the circumference = p A to C (two parts) hence, distance = 2/p
B to E (three equal parts) hence, distance = 3/p
Both persons travel this distance in time t
The relative speed of A and B in time E
=3/p – 2/p = 1/p mtr
Distance travelled in time, suppose in seconds 7/p mtr.  Travelled in time = 7/p x p/1 x t = 7t
 
148. In a question paper, three are four multiple choice type question. Each question has five choices with only one choice for its correct answer.  What is the total number of ways in which a candidate will not get all the four answers correct?
a) 19            b) 120                  c) 624               d) 1024
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Multiple choice type question 
=1 2 3 4
Total numbers of ways = 5 x 5 x 5 x 5 = 625
Number of correct answer = 1
Number of false answers = 625 – 1 = 624
 
149. A match showed a time of fourteen minutes past nine (9 hrs and 14 minutes).  The positions of the hour – hand of the watch are exactly interchanged.  The new time shown by the watch is closet to which one of the following?
a) Twelve minutes to three
b) Thirteen minutes to three
c) Fourteen minutes to three
d) Fifteen minutes to three
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
Minute pointer when move sixty minutes the hour pointer moves five minutes.  When minute pointer moves 14 minutes the hour pointer will move = 14/60 x 5 = 14/12
Hence, the minute pointer will be act  45+14/12 = 277/6  minutes which is closer to fourteen minutes to three.
 
150. 
 
Each of the eight identical ball is to be placed in the squares shown in the figures given above in a horizontal direction such that one horizontal row contains six balls and the other horizontal row contains two balls.  In how many maximum different ways can this be done?
a) 38         b) 28             c) 16          d) 14
Explanation----------------------------------------------- 
There are 19 positions when Row A contains 6 balls. We will get some 19 positions when Row B contains 6 balls. So maximum different ways (to put the 8 balls in a horizontal direction such that one horizontal row contains 6 balls and the other horizontal row contains two balls) are = 19 x 2 = 38. 

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