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UPSC PRELIMS QUESTION PAPERS

2010 PRELIMS GS ORIGINAL QUESTION PAPER

Ancient India
1. There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in ancient India.  One of these is paintings of ancient India.  One of these is paintings of Ajanta caves.  Where is the other surviving examples of Gupta paintings?
    a) Bagh caves                  b) Ellora caves
    c) Lomas Rishi caves     d) Nasik caves
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
Bagh caves in Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh were built by Dattaka, a Buddhist bhikshu (monk) during Gupta period.  Many of the images in paintings got their context from ‘Ritusamhara’ of Kalidasa (a poet in Gupta Court). Lomas Rishi cave (Barabar, Bihar) and Nasik caves were built before the Gupta period.
 Ellora caves were built after the Gupta period.
Source : Ancient History : NCERT
 
2. Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times ?
    1. Buddha was by that time considered as on e of the incarnations of Vishnu and thus became a part of Vaishnavism.
    2. The invading tribes from central Asia till the time of last Gupta king adopted Hinduism and persecuted Buddhists.
    3. The Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed to Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
           a) 1 only        b) 1 and 3
           c) 2 and 3     d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times because Buddha was by that time considered as one of the incarnations of Vishnu and thus became a part of Vaishnavism. Few in Vadas from central Asia till the time of last Gupta king adopted Buddhist religion.  The kings of the Gupta dynasty were not opposed to Buddhism even though they supported Brahmanical faith.
Source : Ancient India : NCERT
                                                               
                                                                                    Medieval India
3. What was the immediate reason for Ahmad Shah Abdali to  invade India and fight the Third Battle of Panipat?
a) He wanted to avenge the expulsion by Marathas of his Viceroy Timur Shah from Lahore
b) The frustrated Government of Jullundhar Adina Beg Khan invited him to invade Punjab.
c) He wanted to punish Mughal administration for non-payment of the revenues of the Chahar Mahal (Gujarat, Aurangabad, Sialkot and Pasrur)
d) He wanted to annex all the fertile plains of Punjab upto the borders of Delhi to his Kingdom
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
The immediate reason for Ahmad Shah Abadali to invade India and fight the Third Battle of Panipat in 1761 was to avenge the expulsion by Marathas of his Viceroy Timur Shah from Lahore.  In March 1758, Raghunath  Rao, the Maratha leader, crossed into the Punjab and drove away prince Timur, who was the Ahmad Shah Abdali’s son and agent our of the Punjab.  The following months saw the Maratha authority extending upto attack.  The Martha appointed Adina Beg Khan as governor of the Punjab on his agreeing to pay an annual tribute of 75 lakhs of rupees.  On Adina’s death, Sabaji Sindhia assumed charge as Governor of the Punjab.  Perhaps, it was Raghunath Rao’s mistake to advance into Punjab without crushing Najib-ud-Daulah or befriending Shuja-ud-Daulah of Oudh or befriending the Jats and the Rajputs.  The Maratha conquest of the Punjab from the Afghans.  Was a direct challenge to Abdaly and the latter decided to accept it. 
Source : Medieval India, Part-II : H.C. Varma Medieval India : NCERT
 
4. Among the following, who was not a proponent of  bhakti cult?
         a) Nagarjuna     b) Tukaram
         c) Tyagaraja      d) Vallabhacharya
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
Tyagaraja IMay4, 1767-Jannuary 6, 1847)  was one of the greatest composers of carnatic music of classical South Indian music.  His full name is Kakarla Tyaga Brahman.  He, alongwith his contemporaries, Muthuswami Dikshitar and Shyama Shastri forms the Trinity of Carnatic music.  He was a prolific composer and highly influential in the development of the south Indian classical music tradition. Tyagaraja composed thousands of devotional compositions, most of them in praise of Lord Rama.  His compositions remain very popular even today.  Of special mention are five of his compositions called the Pancharatna Krithis (five gems), which are often sung in programmes in his honour.
Source : Medieval India : NCERT
 
                                                                                   Modern India
5. With reference to Simon Commision’s recommendations, which one of the following statements is correct?
a) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces
b) It proposed the setting up of inter-provincial council under the Home Department
c) It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the centre
d) It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits.
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
The Simon Commission was to enquire :into working of the system of government, the growth of education and the development of representatives’ institution in British India and matters connected therewith” and  to report “as to whether and to what extent, it is desirable to establish the or restrict the degree of responsible government then existing  therein, including the question, whether the establishment of second-third members of the local legislatures is or is not desirable.  “During the enquiry, the Commission—“ was increasingly impressed by the impossibilityof considering the constitutional problems of British India without taking into account the relations between British India and the Indian States. “
Source :Modern India: B.L.Grover
 
6. Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta Session of Indian National Congress in 1906.  The question of either retention or of rejection of these for resolutions became the cause of a split in Congress at the next Congress Session held in Surat in 1907.
Which one of the following was not one of those resolutions?
a) Annulment of partition of Bengal    b) Boycott
c) National eduction                                d) Swadeshi
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
There was a great deal of public debate and disagreement among Moderates and Extremists in the Years 1905-1907, even when they were working together against the partitioning of Bengal, the Extremists wanted to extend the Swadeshi and the Boycott Movement from Bengal to the rest of the country.  They also wanted to gradually extend the Boycott from foreign goods to every form of association or cooperation with the Colonial Government.  The Moderates wanted to confine the Boycott part of the Movement to Bengal and wee totally opposed to its extension to the Government . Matters nearly came to a head at the Calcutta Congress Session in 1906 over the question of  its Prsidentship.  A split was avoided by choosing Dadabhai Naoroji, who was respected by all the nationalists as a great patriot.  Four compromise resolutions on the Swadeshi, Boycott, national Education and Self-Government demands were passed.  Throughout 1907, the two sides fought over differing interpretations of the four resolutions. 
Source : India’s Freedom Struggle for Independence : Bipin Chandra
 
7. After Quit India Movement, C. Rajagopalachari issued a pamphlet entitled “ The Way Out “. Which one of the following was a proposal in this pamphlet ?
a) The establishment of a “War Advisory Council” composed of representatives of British India and the Indian States
b) Reconstitution of the Central Executive Council in such a way that all its members, except the Governor-General and the Commander-in-Chief should be Indian leaders  
c) Fresh elections to the Central and Provincial Legislatures to be held at the end of 1945 and the Constitution making body to be convened as soon as possible. 
d) A solution for the Constitutional deadlock
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
In March 1944, Mr. C. Rajagopalachari evolved a formula with the “Full” approval of Gandhiji for the Congress.  The scheme embodying the formula was : (i) The League would endorse the demand for independence and cooperate with the Congress in forming a provisional government of the transitional period : (ii) At the end of the war a plebiscite of all the inhabitants in the Muslim-majority areas in the North-West and the North-East would decide whether or not they should form a separate state ; (iii) In the event of separation, agreements would be made for defence, communications and other essential matters ; (iv) These terms were to  be binding only in case of transfer by England of full power and responsibility for the Government of India. However, the constitutional deadlock continued. 
Source : Modern India: B L Grover
 
8. For the Karachi Session of Indian National Congress in 1931 presided over by Sardar patel, who drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme?
a) Mahatma Gandhi        b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad   d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar 
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
Sardar Ballabhbhai Patel presided over the Karachi Session of  Indian National Congress in 1931.  The following resolution were adopted the session :
1. Fundamental Right and Economic Plan Programme were formulated by Jawaharlal Nehru and adopted in the session. 
2. It admitted Gandhi-Irwin Pact as Gandhi was allowed to attend the second Round Table conference in London. 
Source : Modern India : B L Grover
 
9. Who among the following were official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission?
a) Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel
b) Acharya J. B. Kripalani and C. Rajagopalachari
c) Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad
d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
The Cripps Mission was an attempt in late March, 19422 by the British Government to secure Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II.  The Mission was headed by Sir Stafford Cripps, a senior wing politician and government minister in the war (WAR)  cabinet of Prime Minister Winston Churchill.  Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru and Maulana Azad were official congress negotiators with Cripps Mission. 
Cripps proposal contained within  then provision with could divide India into hundred of independent pieces.  It was for this reason that ‘Gandhi opposed’ the Declaration and Urged the working committee to reject ‘the pose dated cheque.’
Source : India’s Freedom Struggle for Independence : Bipin Chandra
 
10. With reference to Pondicherry (now Puducherey), consider the following statements :
1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese. 
2. The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French.
3. The English never occupied Pondicherry.  
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
       a) 1 only     b) 2 and 3
       c) 3 only     d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
The first European power to occupy Pondicherry ere the Portuguese.  The first Europeans to exert power in India were the Portuguese who sailed round Southern Africa in search of the trade goods of the East such as pepper, cloves, silk.  When they reached the coast of India and the islands further east they found their weapons technology and lack of moral scruples gave them at advantage over the local regimes they found.  They began a occupy parts such as Goa in India and towns in Indonesia.
Source : Moden India : B L Grover
 
11. Who among the following Governor-Generals created the Covenanted Civil Service of India which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service?
a) Warren Hastings     b) Wellesley
c) Cornwallis                 d) William Bentinck  
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
The Civil Services was brought into existence by Lord Cornwallis.
Cornwallis, who came to India as Governor-General in 1786, was determined to purify the administration, but the realized that the Company’s servants would not give honest and efficient service so long as they were not given adequate salaries.  He, therefor, enforced the rules against private trade and acceptance of presents and bribes by officials with strictness.  At the same time, he raised the salaries of the Company’s servants.  For example, the Collector of a district was to be paid Rs. 15000 a month and one per cent commission on the revenue collection of his district.  Infact, the  Company’s civil Service would be by seniority so that its members would remain independent of outside influence. 
Source : Modern India : B L Grover
 
12. What was the immediate cause of the  launch of the Swadeshi Movement ?
a) The partition of Bengal done by Lord Curzon
b) A sentence of 18 months rigorous imprisonment  imposed on Lokmanya Tilak
c) The arrest and deportation of Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh; and  passing of the Punjab Colonization Bill 
d) Death sentence pronounced on the Chapekar brothers
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
The Swadeshi Movement had its genesis in the anto-partition movement which was started to oppose the British decision to partition Bengal.  There was no questioning the fact that Bengal with a population of 78 Million (about a quarter of the population of British India) had indeed become administratively unwieldy. Equally there was no escaping the fact that the real motive for partitioning Bengal was political.  Indian nationalism was gaining in strength and partition expected to weaken what was perceived as the nerve centre of Indian nationalism at the time.  The attempt, in the won of Lord Curzon, the Viceroy (1899-1905) was to ‘dethrone Calcutta’ from its position as the centre from which the Congress party manipulated Bengal and indeed, the whole of India.  
Source : India’s Freedom Struggle for Independence : Bipin Chandra
 
13. Consider the following statements:
1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the problem of peasants.
2. Acharya J. B. Kripalani was one of  Mahatma Gandhi’s colleagues in his Champaran investigation. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only               b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2   d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
The story of Champaran beings in the early nineteenth century when European planters had involved the cultivatiors in agreement that forced them to cultivate indigo on 3/20th of their holdings (known as the tinkathia systems). Towards the end of the nineteenth century. German synthetic days forced indigo out of the market and the European planters of Champaran keen to release the cultivators from the obligation of cultivating indigo, tried to turn their necessity to their advantage by securing enhancements in rent and other illegal dues as a price for the release.  Resistance had surfaced in 1908 as well, but the exactions of the planters continued till Raj Kumar Shukla, a local man, decided to follow Gandhiji all over the country to persuade him to come to Champaran to investigate the problem. 
Gandhiji and his collegues, who now included Brijkishore, Rajendra Prasad and other members of the Bihar Intelligentsia, Mahadev Desai and Narhari Parikh, two young  man from Gujarat who had thrown in their lot with Gandhiji and J. B. Kripalani, toured the villages and from dawn to dusk recorded the statements of peasants, interrogating them to make sure that they were giving correct information. 
Source : India’s Freedom Struggle for Independence : Bipin Chandra 
 
14. By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of  his  judicial powers and made the collecting agent only. 
What was the reason for such regulation?
a) Lord Cornwallis felt that the District Collector’s efficiency of revenue collection would enormously increase without the burden of  other work
b) Lord Cornwallis felt that Judicial power should compulsorily be in the hands of Europeans.  While Indians.  Can be given the job of revenue collection in the districts
c) Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the exten of power concentrated in the District Collector and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person  
d) The judicial work demanded a deep knowledge of India and a good training in law and Lord Cornwallis felt that District collector should be only a revenue collector.
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
Cornwallis judicial  reforms took the final shape by 1793 and were embodied in the famous Cornwallis Code.  The new reforms were based on the principle of separation of  powers.  Under the influence of the eighteenth century French philosophers.  Cornwallis sought to separate the revenue administration from the administration of justice. The collector was the head of revenue department in a district and also enjoyed extensive judicial and magisterial powers.  Cornwallis rightly believed that concentration of  all powers in the hands of the Collector in the district retarded the improvement of the country.  How could the Collector acting as a judge of the Diwni Adalat redress the wrongs done by him as Collector or assessor of revenue. Thus, neither the landlords nor the cultivators could regard the Collector as am impartial judge in revenue cases.  The Cornwallis code divested the Collectior of all judicial and magisterial powers and left him with the duty of administration of revenue.  A new class of officer called the District Judge was created to preside over the District Civil Court. The District Judge was also given magisterial and police functions. 
Source : Modern India : B L Grover
 
15. Consider the following statements :
1. The :Bombay Manifesto” singed in 1936 openly opposed the preaching of socialist ideals. 
2. It evoked support from a large section of business community form all across India. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
          a) 1 only             b) 2 only
          c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
The ‘Bombay Manifesto’ signed in 1936 by twenty-one Bombay businessmen, contained an open indictment of Nehru’s preaching of socialist ideals which were deemed prejudicial to private property and to the peace and  prosperity of the country.
Although it did not evoked support from any other section of the business community, it strengthened the hands of the moderates within the Congress like Bhulabhai Desai and G. B. Pant, who pur pressure on Nehru to tone down his Socialist utterances. 
Source : India’s Freedom Struggle for Independence : Bipin Chandra
 
                                                                                          Geography
Geography of India
16. Following are the characteristics of an area in India : 
1. Hot and humid climat
2. Annual rainfall 200cm
3. Hill slopes upto an altitude of 1100 m
4. Annual range of temperature 150C to 300C
Which one among the following crops are you most likely to find in the area described above ?
            a) Mustard       b) Cotton
            c) Pepper          d) Virginia tobacco
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
Mustard is principally grown relatively in arid areas. Cotton is grown in black soil region which does not require 200 cm of rainfall.  Virginia tobacco cannot exist above 125 cm rainfall.  Conditions given are conducive for the growth of pepper.
Source : Comprehensive Geography of India : D. R. Khullar
 
17. With reference to the mineral resources of India, consider the following pairs :
           Mineral           90% Natural sources in
          1. Copper             Jharkhand
          2. Nickel                Orissa
          3. Tungsten          Kerala
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
         a) 1 and 2     b) 2 only
         c) 1 and 3     d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
Most of Nickel reserves on India are found in Cuttack, Keonjhar and  Mayurbhanj districts of Orissa (92%). Copper is mostly found in Bihar-Jharkhand (44%) and  Rajasthan (20%). Tungsten is produced only in Degana mine in Rajasthan.
Source : Geography of India : C B Memoria
 
18. The approximate representation of land use classification in India is :
a) Net area sown 25%;forests 33%; other areas 42%
b) Net area sown 58%;forests 17%; other areas 25%
c) Net area sown 43%;forests 29%; other areas 28%
d) Net area sown 47%;forests 23%; other areas 30%
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
The approximate representation of land use classification in India is option (d), because Net sown area is 46% and total forest area is 22.96%
Source : India 2010 : Publication Division, Govt. Of India 
 
19. consider the following pairs :
             Protected area                Well-known for
  1. Bhiterkanika,                     Orissa Salt Water Crocodile
  2. Desert, National Park,     Great Indian Bustard Rajasthan   
  3. Eravikulam,                        Keral Hoolak Gibbon
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
             a) 1 only    b) 1 and 2
             c) 2 only    d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
Eravikulam National  Park is known for Nilgiri. Tahr, Hoolak Gibbon are found in the Manas National park, Namdapha National Park and Kaziranga National park in the North Eastern India. 
Source : Comprehensive Geography of India : D. R Khullar
 
20. In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest area?
a) Montane Wet Temperate Forest
b) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
c) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
d) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
  Types of Forest Area(in percentage)
  Montane Wet Temperate 3.45%
  Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen 0. 36%
  Tropical Moist Deciduous 33.92%
  Tropical Wet Evergreen 8.75%
Source : From Comprehensive Geography of India : D R Khullar
 
21.Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-made cotton yarn in the country. What could be the reason?
1. Black cotton soil is the predominant type of soil in the state.
2. Rich pool of skilled labour is available.
Which of the above is/are the correct reasons?
        a) 1 only              b) 2 only
       c) Both 1 and 2   d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
In Tamil Nadu, major soils are red sandy, alluvial and red loamy soils.  Tamil Nadu has one of the most skilled labour forces in India.
Source : Geography of India : C B Memoria
 
22. Rivers that pass through Himachal Pradesh are:
a) Beas and Chenab only
b) Beas and Chenab only
c) Chenab, Ravi and Satluj only
d) Beas, Chenab, Ravi, Satluj and Yamuna
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
Beas flows through Mandi, Hamirpur districts of Himachal Pradesh. Chenab flows through Keylang, Mandi etc, districts.  Ravi flows through Chamba distict of Himachal Pradesh.  Satluj flows through Kalpa, Bilaspur etc, districts of Himachal Pradesh.  Yamuna makes boundary between Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.  It flows though Nahan district and enter in  Himachal Pradesh in Sirmur district.
Source : Oxford Student Atlas Geography of India : C B Memoria
 
23. When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil.  What is the main reason for this colour ?
a) Abundance of magnesium
b) Accumulated humus
c) Presence of ferric oxides
d) Abundance of phosphates
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
Iron makes oxides on chemical weathering, so as to give red colour to the soil. 
Source : Physical Geography : Savinder Singh 
 
24. Which one of the following is the appropriate reason for considering the Gondwana rocks as most important of rock systems of India?
a) More then 90% of limestone reserves of India are found in them
b) More than 90% of India’s Coal reserves are found in them
c) More than 90% of fertile black cotton soils are spread over them
d) None of the reasons given above is appropriate in this context
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
Around 98% of coal reserves of India are found in Gondwana rock system. 
Source : Geography of India : Gopal Singh
 
25. With reference of the river Luni, which one of the following statements is correct?
a) it flows into Gulf of Khambhat
b) It flows into Gulf of Kuchchh
c) It flows into Pakistan and merges with a tributary of Indus
d) It is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kuchchh
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
Luni is an endorheic river which makes an inward flowing pattern in semi-arid zone of Rajasthan. 
Source : Oxford student Atlas
 
26. Which one of the following pairs in not correctly matched ?
        Dam/Lake            River
  (a) Govind Sagar   : Satluj
  (b) Kolleru Lake    : Krishna
  (c) Ukai Reservoir : Tapi
  (d) Wular lake        : Jhelum
Explanation ----------------------------------------------
Govind Sagar dam is on Satluj (HP)  near Punjab border.  Kolleru lake is located between Krishna and Godawari river valleys and serves as a natural flood balancing reservoir for both the rivers. River budaneru  (sorrow of Vijayawada) drains into Kolleru lake.  Ukai reservoir on Tapi river (Gujarat) near Maharashtra border, Wular lake is on river Jhelum. 
 
27. Consider the following statements:
1. The Taxus tree naturally found in the Himalayas. 
2. The Taxus tree is listed in the Red Data Book.
3. A drug called ‘taxol’ is obtained from Taxus tree is effective against Parkinson’s disease. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
        a) 1 only        b) 1 and 2
        c) 2 and 3     d) 1, 2 and 3
 
28.If there were no Himalayan ranges, what would have been the most likely geographical impact on India?
1. Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia. 
2. Indo-gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils. 
3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
         a) 1 only      b) 1 and 3
         c) 2 and 3   d) 1, 2 and 3
 
29. The latitudes that pass through Sikkim alxo pass through :
          a) Rajasthan                b) Punjab
          c) Himachal Pradesh d) Jammu & Kashmir
 
30. A geographic area with an altitude of 400 m has following characteristics :

Month

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

S

O

N

D

Average

maximum

temp. 0C

31

31

31

30

30

30

29

28

29

29

30

31

Average maximum temp0C

21

21

21

21

21

21

20

20

20

20

20

20

Rainfall (mm)

51

85

188

158

139

121

134

168

185

221

198

86

If this geographic area were to have a natural forest, which one of the following would it most likely be?
a) Moist temperate coniferous forest
b) Montane subtropical forest
c) Temperate forest
d) Tropical rain forest
 
31. A new type of EI Nino called EI Nino Modoki appeared in the news.  In this context, consider the following statements :
1. Normal EI Nino forms in the Central Pacific ocean whereas EI Nino Modoki forms in Eastern Pacific ocean.
2. Normal EI Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic ocean but  EI Nino Modoki results in a greater  number of hurricanes with greater frequency. 
Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
      a) 1 only               b) 2 only
      c) Both 1 and 2   d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
31. A new type of EI Nino called EI Nino Modoki appeared in the news.  In this context, consider the following statements :
1. Normal EI Nino forms in the Central Pacific ocean whereas EI Nino Modoki forms in Easten pacific ocean.
2. Normal EI Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic ocean but EI Nino Modoki results in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
          a) 1 only                b) 2 only
          c) Both 1 and 2    d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
32. Mon 863 is a variety of maize. It was in the news for the following reason :
a)  It is  a genetically modified dwarf variety which is resistant to drought
b) It is a genetically modified variety which is pest resistant
c) It is a genetically modified variety with tem times higher protein content than regular maize crop
d) It is a genetically modified variety used exclusively for bio-fuel production.
 
33. Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation.  In this context, consider the following statement :
1. Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both  tropical and subtropical areas.
2. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
         a) 1 only                 b) 2 only
         c) Both 1 and 2     d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
34. Consider the following statements :
1. The boundaries of a national park are defined by legislation. 
2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora and fauna. 
3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is permitted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
            a) 1 only       b) 2 and 3
            c) 1 and 3     d) 1, 2 and 3
 
35. With reference to soil conservation, consider the following practices :
      1. Crop rotation     2. Sand fences
      3. Terracing           4. Wind breaks
Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in India?
        a) 1, 2 and 3       b) 2 and 4
        c) 1, 3 and 4       d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 
36. As per the UN-Habitat’s Global Report on Human Settlements 2009, which one among the following regions has shown the fastest growth rate of urbanization in the last three decades ?
           a) Asia     b) Europe    c) Latin America and Caribbean
           d) North America 
 
37. Consider the following statements :
1. On the planet Earth, the fresh water available for use amounts to about less than 1% of the total water found. 
2. Of the total fresh water found on the planet Earth 95% is bound up in polar ice caps and glaciers.
Which of the statesments given above is/are correct ?
      a) 1 only             b) 2 and 3
      c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
38. Which one of the following can one cone across if one travels through the Strait of Malacca?
       a) Bali     b) Brunei
       c) Java    d) Singapore
 
39. A geographic region has the following distinct characteristics : 
1. Warm and dry climate.
2. Mild and wet winter.
3. Evergreen oak trees
The above features are the distinct characteristics of which one of the following regions ?
      a) Mediterranean  b) Eastern China
      c) Central Asia       d) Atlantic coast of North America
 
40. What causes wind to deflect toward left in the Southern hemisphere?
     a) Temperature                b) Magnetic field
     c) Rotation of the earth d) Pressure
 
                                                                                        Polity
41. The  ‘Instrument of Instructions’ contained in the Government of India Act, 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as :
       a) Fundamental Rights
       b) Directive Principles of State Policy
       c) Extent of Executive Power of State
       d) Conduct of Business of the Government of India
 
42. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following :
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India ?
    a) 1 only    b) 3 only
    c) 1 and 3  d) 1, 2 and 3
 
43. Consider  the following  statements:
The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law of fact :
1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. If he seeks such an advice
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
      a)  1 only  b) 2 only
      c) 3 only   d) 1 and 2
 
44. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct ?
a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court
b) Lok  Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature.
c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person
d) None of the statements given above is correct
 
45. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each  House of Parliament?
a) The President of India
b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
c) The Prime Minister of India
d) The Union Finance Minister
 
                                                                        Economic
46. In the context of Indian economy consider the following pairs :
           Term             Most appropriate description
1. Melt down            Fall in stock prices
2. Recession             Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down           Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
        a) 1 only    b) 2 and 3
        c) 1 and 3  d) 1, 2 and 3
 
47. With reference to BRIC countries, consider the following statements :
1. At present, China’s GDP is more than the combined GDP of all the three other countries
2. China’s population is more than the combined population of any two other countries.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
        a) 1 only             b) 2 only
        c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
48. Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency?
       a) ADR     b) GDR
       c) SDR      d) Both ADR and SDR
 
49. An objective of the National Food Security Mission is to increase the production of certain crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement in a sustainable manner in the identified districts of the country.  What are those crops?
a) Rice and Wheat only
b) Rice, wheat and pulses only
c) Rice, wheat, pulses and oil seeds only
d) Rice, wheat, pulses, oil seeds and vegetables
 
50. In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all the nationalized commercial banks is fixed by :
a) Union Ministry of Finance
b) Union Finance Commission
c) Indian Banks’ Association
d) None of the above
 
51. In the context of bilateral trade negotiations between India and European Union, what is the difference between European Commission European Council ?
1. European Commission represents the EU in trade negotiations whereas European Council participates in the legislation of matters pertaining to economic policies of the European Union.
2. European Commission comprises the Heads of State or government of member countries whereas the European Council comprises of the persons nominated by European Parliament. 
Which of the statement  given above is/are correct?
     a) 1 only              b) 2 only
     c) Both 1 and 2  d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
52. With reference to the national Investment Fund to which the disinvestment proceeds are routed, consider the following statements :
1. The assets in the National Investment Fund ate managed by the Union Ministry of Finance.
2. The National Investment Fund is to be maintained within the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. Certain Asset Management Companies are appointed as the fund managers.
4. A certain proportion of annual income is used for financing select social sectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
      a) 1 and 2    b) 2 only
      c) 3 and 4   d) 3 only
 
53. In India, which of the following is regulated by the Forward Markets Commission ?
a) Currency Futures Trading
b) Commodities Futures Trading
c) Equity Futures Trading
d) Both Commodities Futures and Financial Fututes Trading
 
54. Which one of the following is not a feature of Limited Liability Partnership firm ?
a) Partners should be less than 20
b) Partnership and management need not be separate
c) Internal governance may be decided by mutual agreement among partners.
d) It is corporate body with perpetual succession
 
55. With reference to the institution of  Banking Ombudsman in India. Which one of the statements is not correct ?
a) The Banking Ombudsman  is appointede by he Resece Bank of India
b) The Banking Ombudsman can consider complaints from Non-Resident Indians.  Having accounts in India 
c) The orders passed by the Banking Ombudsman are final and binding on the parties concerned
d) The service provided by the Banking Ombudsman is free of any fee.
 
56. With reference to India, consider the following :
1. Nationalization of Banks.
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks.
3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches. 
Which of the above can be condisdered as steps taken to achieve the “financial inclusion” in India?
   a) 1 and 2   b) 2 and 3
   c) 3 only     d) 1, 2 and 3
 
57. Consider the following statements :
The functions of commercial banks in India include
1.  Purchase and sale of shares and securities on behalf of customers. 
2. Acting as executors and trustees of wills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
      a) 1 only              b) 2 only
      c) Both 1 and 2  d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
58. In India, the tax proceeds of which one of the following as a percentage of gross tax revenue has significantly declined in the last five years ?
a) Service tax   b) Personal income tax
c) Excise duty   d) Corporation tax
 
59. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?
a) District Planning Committees
b) State Finance Commission
c) Finance Ministry of that State
d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State
 
60. Consider the following statements. 
In India, taxes on transactions in Stock Exhanges and Futures Markets are :
1. levied by the Union
2. collected by the States
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    a) 1 only             b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
61. In India, during the last decade the total cultivated land for which one of the following crops has remained more or less stagnant?
     a) Rice    b) Oilseeds
     c) Pulses d) Sugarcane
 
62. Consider the following statement:
1. The Union Government fixes the Statutory Minimum  Price of sugarcane for each sugar season. 
2. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only               b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2  d) Neither 1  nor 2
 
63. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statement :
1. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has increase by four times in the last 10 years.
2. The percentage share of Public Sector in GDP has declined in the last 10 years
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 only              b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2  d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
64. The  International Development Association, a lending agency, is administered by the
a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
b) International Fund for Agricultural Development
c) United Nations Development Programme
d) United Nations Industrial Development Organization
 
65. Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks for providing credit to the  government ?
a) Cash Credit Ratio
b) Debt Service Obligation
c) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
d) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
 
66. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.  The difference between a ‘Trade Mark’ and  a Geographical Indications is/are :
1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company’s right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community’s right
2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the  agricultural goods/products  and handicraft only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only     b) 1 and 2
   c) 2 and 3  d) 1, 2 and 3
 
67. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives.  In the context, consider the following :
1. Development of infrastructure facilities.
2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources.
3. Promotion of exports of service only
Which of the above are the objectives of this Act ?
        a) 1 and 2    b) 3 only
        c) 2 and 3   d) 1, 2 and 3
 
68. Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of deflation?
a) it is a sudden fall in the value of currency against other currencies
b) It is persistent recession in both the financial and real sectors of economy
c) It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services
d) It is a fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time
 
69. With reference to the Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements:
1. They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the government.
2. They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings Account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
        a) 1 only            b) 2 only
       c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
70. Which one of the following was not stipulated in the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 ?
a) Elimination of revenue deficit by  the end of the fiscal year 2007-08
b) Non-borrowing by the central government from Reserve Bank of India exvept under certain circumstances
c) Elimination of primary deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2008-09
d) Fixing government guarantees in any financial year as a percentage of GDP.
 
71. In the parlance of financial investment, the term ‘bear’ denotes
a) An investor who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall
b) An investor who expects the price of particular shares-to rise
c)  A shareholder on a bondholder who has an interest in a company, financial or otherwise.
d) Any lender whether by making a loan or buying a bond 
 
72. A great deal of foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to India comes from Mauritius than from many major and  mature economies
like UK and France.  Why ?
a) India has preference for certain countries as regards receiving FDI
b) India has double taxation avoidance agreement with Mauritius
c) Most citizens of Mauritius have ethnic identity with India and so they feel secure to invest in India
d) Impending dangers of global climatic change prompt Mauritius to make huge investments in India.
 
73. Sustainable development is described as the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.  In this perspective, inherently the concept of sustainable development is intertwined with which of the following  concepts? 
a) social justice and empowerment
b) Inclusive Growth
c) Globalization
d) Carrying capacity
 
74. In the context of governance, consider the following :
1. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows.
2. Privatization of higher educational institutions.
3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy.
4. Selling/offloading the share of Public Sector Undertaking. 
Which of the above can be used a measure to control the fiscal deficit in India ?
         a) 1, 2 and 3  b) 2, 3 and 4
         c) 1, 2 and 4  d) 3 and 4
 
75. Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh Five Year Plan does not include one of the following :
a) Reduction of povery
b) Extension of employment opportunities
c) Strengthening of capital market
d) Reduction of gender inequality
 
76. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?
a) Department of Revenue
b) Department of Economic Affairs
c) Department of Financial Services
d) Department of Expenditure
 
77. Consider the following actions by the Government :
1. Cutting the tax rates.
2. Increasing the government spending
3. Abolishing the subsides.
In the context of economic recession, which of the above actions can be consider a part of the ‘fiscal stimulus’ actions can be considered a part of the ‘fiscal stimulus’ package?
         a) 1 and 2   b) 2 only
         c) 1 and 3   d) 1, 2 and 3
 
78. When the Reserve Bank of India announces an increase of the Cash Reserve Ratio, what does it mean?
a) The commercial banks will have less money to lend
b) The Reserve Bank of India will have less money to lend 
c) The Union Government will have less money to lend
d) The commercial banks will have more money to lend
 
79. With reference to India, consider the following statements : 
1. The wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India for Industrial or a monthly basis only.
2. As compared on Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers[CPI (IW)],  the WPI gives less weight to food articles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
         a) 1 only               b) 2 only
         c) Both 1 and 2   d) Neither 1 nor2
 
80. In the context of India’s Five Year Plans, a shift in the pattern of Industrialization, with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
   a) Fourth Plan   b) Sixth Plan
   c) Eighth Plan    d) Tenth Plan
 
81. Two of the schemes launched by the Government of India for woman’s development are Swadhar and Swayam Siddha.  As regards the difference between them, consider the following statements :
1. Swayam Siddha is meant for those in difficult circumstances such as women surviviors of natural disaster of terrorism, women prisoners released from jails, mentally challenged women etc, whereas, Swadhar is meant for holistic empowerment of women through self Help Groups. 
2. Swayam Siddha is implemented through Local Self Government bodies or reputed Voluntary Organizations whereas Swadhar is implemented through the ICDS units set up in the staes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
   a) 1 only              b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2  d) Neither 1 nor2
 
                                                                                               SCIENCE
Physics
82. If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plate does not.  This is because
a) potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose
b) potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves
c) potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water
d) potato is a fresh organic material whereas paper is a dead organic material 
 
83. Which one of the following reflects back more sunlight as compared to other three ?
a) Sand desert                                   b) Paddy crop land
c) Land covered with fresh snow  d) Prairie land
 
84. What is the principle by which a cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works ?
        a)Conduction only        b) Convection
        c) Radiation only          d) Both conduction and radiation
 
85. Indiscriminate disposal of used fluorescent electric lamps causes mercury pollution in the environment. Why is mercury used in the manufacture of these lamps?
a) A mercury coating on the inside of the lamp makes the light bright white. 
b) When the lamp is switched on, the mercury in the lamp causes the emission of ultra-violet radiations
c) When the lamp is switched on, it is the mercury which converts the ultra-violet energy into visible light
d) None of the statement given above is correct about the use of mercury in the manufacture of fluorescent lamps
 
86. Consider the following : 
1. Oxides of hydrogen
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Oxides of sulphur
Which of the above cause/causes acid rain ?
    a) 1 and 2    b) 3 only
   c) 2 and 3    d) 1, 2 and 3
 
87. Chlorination is a process used for water purification.  The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to 
a) the formation of hydrochloric acid when chlorine is added to water
b) the formation of hypochlorous acid when chlorine is added to water
c) the formation of nascent oxygen when chlorine is added to water
d) the formation of hydrogen when chorine is added to water
                                                                                              Biology
88. Which bacterial strain, developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulation,  can be used for treating oil spills ?
      a) Agrobacterium   b) Clostridium
      c) Nitrosomonas     d) Pseudomonas
 
89. Which feature of some species of blue-green algae helps to promote them as bio-fertilizers ?
a) They convert atmospheric methane into ammonia which the crop plants can absorb readily
b) They induce the crop plants to produce the enzymes which help convert atmospheric nitrogen to nitrates
c) They have the mechanism to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that the crop plants can absorb readily
d) They induce the roots of the crop plants to absorb the soil nitrates in larger quantities.
 
90. Which oe of the following processes in the bodies of living organisms, is a digestive process ?
a) Breakdown of proteins into amino acids
b) Breakdown of glucose into CO2 and H2O 
c) Conversion of glucose into glycogen
d) Conversion of amino acids into proteins
 
91. From the point of view of evolution of living organisms which one of the following is the correct sequences of evolution ?
    a) Otter-Tortoise-Shark   b) Shark-Tortoise-Otter
    c) Tortoise-Shark-Otter   d) Shark-Otter-Tortoise
 
92. Consider the following statements :
1. Every individual in the population is equally susceptible host for Swine Flu.
2. Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu.
3. To prevent the future spread of Swing Flu in the epidemic area, the swing (pigs) must all be culled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
       a) 1 and 2    b) 2 only
       c) 2 and 3   d) 1, 2 and 3
 
93. With regard to the transmission of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus, which one of the following statements is not correct ?
a) The chances of transmission from female to male are twice as likely as from male to female
b) The chances of transmission are more if a person suffers from other sexually transmitted infections.
c) An infected mother can transmit the infection to her baby during pregnancy, at child birth and by breast feeding.
d) The risk of contracting infection from transfusion of infected blood is much higher than an exposure to contaminated needle. 
 
94. Widespread resistance of malarial  parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop  a malarial vaccine to combat malaria.  Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine ?
a) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium
b) Man does not develop immunity to malaria during  natural infection
c) Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria
d) Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host
 
95. A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed on a food crop.  The food chain is : Food crop-Rat-Snake-Hawk.  In this food chain, the highest concentration of the pesticide would accumulate in which one of the following?
a) Food crop   b) Rat
c) Snake           d) Hawk
 
96. Some species of plants are insectivorous. Why?
a) Their growth in shady and dark places does not allow them to undertake sufficient photosynthesis the thus, they depend on insects for nutrition
b) They are  adapted to grow in nitrogen deficient soils and thus, depend on insects for sufficient nitrogenous nutrition. 
c) They cannot synthesize certain vitamins themselves and depend on the insects digested by them
d) They have remained in the particular stage of evolution as living fossils, a link between autotrophs and heterotrophs.
 
97. King Cobra is the only snake that makes its own nest.  Why does it make its nest ?
a) It is a snake=eater and the nest helps attract other snakes
b) It is a viviparous snake and needs a nest to give birth to its offspring
c) It is an oviparous snake and lays its eggs in the nest and guards the nest until they are hatched
d) It is a large, cold blooded animal and needs a nest to hibernate in the cold season. 
 
                                                            Science and Technology
98. India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the Planning Commission as a mega science project under the 11th Five-Years Plan.  In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Neutrinos are charge less elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light.
2. Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay.
3. Neutrinos have a negligible, but non zero mass.
4. Trillions of Neutrinos pass through human body every second. 
Which of the statement given above are correct ?
    a) 1 and 3       b) 1, 2 and 3
    c) 2, 3 and 4  d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 
99. Hydrogen fuel cell  vehicle produce one of the following as ‘exhaust’
        a) NH3    b) CH4     c) H2O    d) H2O2
 
100. Recently, LASIK (Laser Assisted In Situ Keratomileusis) procedure is being  made popular for vision correction.  
Which of the following statement in this context is not correct ?
a) LASIK procedure is used to correct refractive errors of the eye
b) It is a procedure that permanently changes the  shapes of the cornea
c) It reduces a person’s dependence on glasses or contact lenses
d) It is a procedure that can be done on the person of any age
 
101. Other than Jatropha curcas, way is Pongamia pinnata also considered a good option for the production of bio-diesel in India ?
1. Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India. 
2. The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich inlipid content of which nearly half is oleic acid.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
        a) 1 only              b) 2 only
        c) Both 1 and 2  d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
102. Consider the following statement :
1. Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV/AIDS.
2. Hepatitis B can cause liver cancer. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
       a) 1 only             b) 2 only
       c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
103. Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide (CO) into the air may produce a condition in which oxygen supply in the human body decreases.  What causes this condition?
a) When inhaled into the human body, CO is converted into CO2
b) The inhaled CO has much higher affinity for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen
c) The inhaled CO destroys the chemical structure of haemoglobin
d) The inhaled CO adversely affects the respiratory centre in the brain.
 
104. What are the possible limitations of India in mitigating the global warming at present and in the immediate future ?
1. Appropriate alternate technologies are not sufficiently available. 
2. India cannot invest huge funds in research and development
3. Many developed countries have already set up their polluting industries in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
       a) 1 and 2      b) 2 only
       c) 1 and 3      d) 1, 2 and 3
 
105. Consider the following which can be found in the ambient atmosphere:
1. Soot
2. Sulphur hexafluoride
3. Water vapour
Which of the above contribute to the warming up on the atmosphere?
       a) 1 and 2   b) 3 only
       c) 2 and 3   d) 1, 2 and 3
 
106. Genetically modified ‘golden rice’ has been engineered to meet human nutritional requirements.  Which one of the following statements best qualifies golden rice ?
a) The grains have been fortified with genes to provide three times higher grain yield per acre than other high yielding varieties.
b) Its grains contain pro-vitamin A which upon in ingestion is converted to vitamin A in the human body.
c) Its modified genes cause the synthesis of all the nine essential amino acids.
d) Its modified genes cause the fortification of its grains with vitamin D.
 
107. Consider the following :
1. Bluetooth device
2. Cordless phone
3. Microwave oven
4. Wi-Fi device
Which of the above can operate between 2.4 and 2.5 GHz range of radio frequency band ?
   a) 1 and 2     b) 3 and 4
   c) 1, 2 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 
108. Consider the following statements :
1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical regions. 
2. India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e, Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
     a) 1 only             b) 2 only
     c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
109. Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be contributing to global warming.  To what possible reason/reasons is this attributable?
1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice cultivation cause the emission of methane. 
2. When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted from the cultivated soil. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
        (a) 1 only             b) 2 only
        c) Both 1 and 2  d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
110. Given below are the names of four energy crops.  Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol?
     a) Jatropha    b) Mize
     c) Pongamia  d) Sunflower
 
111. Which among the following do/does not belong to the GSM family of wireless technologies ?
       a) EDGE     b) LTE 
       c) DSL         d) Both EDGE and LTE
 
112. With reference to the treatment of cancerous tumours, a tool called cyberknife has been making the news.  In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct?
a) It is a robotic image guided system
b) It delivers an extremely precise dose of radiation
c) It has the capability of achieving sub-millimetre accuracy 
d) It can map the spread of  tumour in the body
 
113. In the context of space technology, what is ‘Bhuvan’, recently in the news?
a) A mini satellite launched by ISRO for promoting the distance education in India
b) The name given to the next Moon Impact Probe, for Chandrayan – II
c) A geoportal of ISRO with 3-D imaging capabilities of India.
d) A space telescope developed by India.
 
                                                                                     Reasoning
114. Six books A, B, C, D, E and F are placed side by side.  B, C and E have blue cover and the other books have red cover.  Only D and F are new books and the rest are old.  A, C and D are law reports and others are Gazetteers.  What book is  a new law report with a red colour ?
       a) A       b) B     c) C       d) D
 
115. Six person M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in two rows, three in each.  Q is not at end of any row.  P is second to the left of R. O is the neighbor of Q and is sitting diagonally opposite to P. N is the neighbor of R.  On the basis of above information, who is facing N?
       a) R         b) Q     c) P     d) M
 
116. Examine the following statements :
1. All colours are pleasant
2. Some colours are pleasant
3. No colour is pleasant
4. Some colours are not pleasant
Given that the statement 4 is true, what can be definitely concluded ?
    a) 1 and 2 are true   b) 1 is false
    c) 2 is false                d) 3 is true
 
117. A cuboid has six sides of different colours.  The red side is opposite to black . The blue side is adjacent to white. The brown side is adjacent to blue.  The red side is face down.
Which one of the following would be the opposite to brown?
      a) Red     b) Black
      c) White d) Blue
 
118. In a tournament 14 terms play league matches.  If each team plays against every other team once only then how many matches are played?
      a) 105      b) 91      c) 85    d) 78
 
119. In a group of five persons A, B, C, D, and E; there is a professor, a doctor and lawyer.  A and D are unmarried ladies, and do not work. Of the married couple in the Group, E is the husband.  B is the brother of A and is neither a doctor nor a lawyer.  Who is the professor?
        a) B    b) C    c) A
        d) Cannot be determined with the available data
 
120. Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses.  One-fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One-third of the villagers are literate.  Four-fifth of the  villagers are below twenty five. Then, which one of the following is certainly true ?
a) All the villagers who have their own houses are literate 
b) Some Villagers under twenty five are literate
c) A quarter of the villagers who have their own houses cultivate paddy
d) Half of the villagers who cultivate paddy are literate
 
121. P, Q, R and S are four men. P is the oldest but not the poorest, R is the richest but not the oldest.  Q is older than S but  not than P or S is richer than Q but not than S. The four men can be ordered (descending) in respect of age and richness, respectively, as
    a) PQRS, RPSQ   b) PRQS, RSPQ
    c) PRQS, RSQP    d) PRSQ, RSPQ
 
122. In how many ways can four children be made to stand in a line such that two of them, A and B are always together ?
     a) 6       b) 12      c) 18      d) 24
 
123. In a meeting , the map of a village was placed in such a manner that South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on.  What will South become ?
   a) North           b) North-East
   c) North-West d) West
 
                                                                    Mathematics
124. Running at a speed of 60 km per hour, a train passed through a 1.5 km long tunnel in two minutes.  What is the length of the train ?
   a) 250 m    b) 500 m
   c) 1000 m  d) 1500 m
 
125. A person X has four notes of Rupee 1, 2, 5 and 10 denomination.  The number of different sums of money she can form from them is
    a) 16     b) 15    c) 12   d) 8
 
126. Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less that the number X ?
   a) 8%     b) 9%   c) 10%   d) 12%
 
127. Two trains leave New Delhi at the same time.  One travels North at 60 kmph. and the other travels South at 40 kmph. After how many hours will the trains be 150 km apart ?
   a) 3/2     b) 4/3    c) ¾    d) 15/2
 
128. A question paper had tem questions.  Each question could only be answered as True (T) or False (F). Each candidate answered all the questions.  Yet, no two candidates wrote the answers in an identical sequence.  How many different sequences of answers are possible ?
    a) 20      b) 40    c) 512   d) 1024
 
129. A person travelled a distance of 50 km in 8 h. He covered a part of the distance on foot at the rate of 4 km per hour and a part on a bicycle at the rate of 10 km per hour.  How much distance did he travel on foot ?
     a) 10 km     b) 20 km
     c) 30 km     d) 40 km
 
130. How many numbers from 0 to 999 are not divisible by either 5 to 7 ?
         a) 313     b) 341    c) 686   d) 786
 
131. Each person’s performance compared with all other persons is to be done to rank them subjectively.  How many comparisons are needed in total, if there are 11 persons ?
        a) 66      b) 55     c) 45    d) 54
 
132. Three men start together to travel the same way around a circular track of 11 km.  Their speeds are 4, 5.5 and 8 kmph respectively.  When will they meet at the starting point for the first time ?
    a) After 11 h    b) After 21 h
    c) After 22 h   d) After 33 h
 
133. A man fills a basket with eggs in such a way that the number of eggs added on each successive day is the same as the number already present in the basket. This way the basket gets completely filled in 24 days.  After how many days the basket was 1/4th full ?
    a) 6     b) 12    c) 17    d) 22
 
134. The diameters of two circular coins are in the ratio of 1 : 3. The smaller coin is made to roll around the bigger coin till it returns to the position from where the process of rolling started.  How many times the smaller coin rolled around the bigger coin ?
      a) 9    b) 6     c) 3    d) 1.5 
 
135. The difference between  the simple interest received from two banks on Rs. 500 for two years is Rs. 2.50. What is the difference between their rates ?
   a) 0.25%   b) 0.5%
   c) 1 %         d) 2.5 %
 
136. When the persons shake hands with one another, in how many ways is it possible ?
    a) 20    b) 25   c) 40   d) 45
 
137. A candidate attempted 12 questions and secured full marks in all of them.  If he obtained 60% in the test and all  questions carried equal marks, then what is the number of questions in the test ?
     a) 36    b) 30    c) 25   d) 20
 
                                                         Current Affairs
138. Consider the following statements :
The satellite Oceansat-2 launched by India helps in :
1. estimating the water vapour content in the atmosphere. 
2. predicting the onset of monsoons. 
3. Monitoring the pollution of coastal waters
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
   a) 1 and 2   b) 2 only
   c) 1 and 3   d) 1, 2 and 3
 
139. As a result of their annual  survey, the National Geographic Society and an international polling firm Globe Scan gave India top rank in Greendex 2009 score. What is the score ?
a) It is a measure of efforts made by different countries in adopting technologies for reducing carbon footprint
b) It is a measure of environmentally sustainable consumer behavior in different countries.
c) It is an assessment of programmes/schemes undertaking by different countries for improving the conservation of natural resources.
d) It is an index showing the volume of carbon credits sold by different countries. 
 
                                                            Miscellaneous
140. Consider the following countries :
  1. Brazil 2. Mexico 3. South Africa
According to UNCTAD, which of the above is/are categorized as ‘Emerging Economies’ ?
    a) 1 only       b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3     d) 1, 2 and 3
 
141. Which one of the following is not  related to United Nations ?
a) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
b) International Finance Corporation
c) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
d) Bank for international Settlements.
 
142. Stieglitz Commission established by the President of the United Nations General Assembly was in the international news.  The commission was supposed to deal with
a) The challenges posed by the impending global climate change and prepare a road map
b) The workings of the global financial systems and to explore ways and means to secure a more sustainable global order
c) Global terrorism and prepare a global action plan for the mitigation of terrorism
d) Expansion of the United Nations Security Council in the present global scenario
 
143. As regards the use of international food safety standards as reference point for the dispute settlements, which one of the following does WTO collaborates with ?
a) Codex Alimentarius Commission
b) International Federation of Standards Users
c) International Organization for Standardization
d) World Standards Cooperation 
 
144. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCC) is an international treaty drawn at
a) United Nations Conference  on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972
b) UN Conference on Environment and Development, Rio de Janeiro, 1992
c) World Summit on sustainable Development, Johannesburg, 2002
d) UN Climate Change Conference, Copenhagen, 2009
 
145. India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has declared many areas as Ramsar Sites, Which of the following statements best describes as to how we should maintain these sites in the context of the Convention ?
a) Keep all the sites completely inaccessible to man so that they will not be exploited
b) conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and permit tourism and recreation only
c) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach  for a period without any exploitation, with specific criteria and specific period for each site, and then allow sustainable use of them by future generations
d) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and allow their simultaneous sustainable use.
 
146. Consider the following statements :
1. The Commonwealth has no charter, treaty or constitution.
2. All the territories/countries once under the British empire (jurisdiction/rule/mandate) automatically jointed the Commonwealth as its members. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
  a) 1 only             b) 2 only
  c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
147. In the context of the affairs of which of the following is the phrase ‘Special Safeguard Mechanisms’ mentioned in the news frequently ?
a) United Nations Environment Programme
b) World Trade Organization
c) ASEAN – India Free Trade Agreement
d) G-20 Summits
 
148. With reference to the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement policy, 2007, consider the following statements :
1. This policy is applicable only to the persons affected by the acquisition of land for projects and not to the involuntary displacement due to any other reason.
2. This policy has been formulated by the Ministry of social Justice and Empowerment. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
     a) 1 only             b) 2 only
     c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor  2
 
149. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the child, consider the following :
1. The Right to Development
2. The Right to Expression
3. The Right to Recreation
Which of the above is/are the Right of the child ?
   a) 1 only    b) 1 and 3
   c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
 
150. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct ?
a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit.
b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a women.
c) The District  Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs
d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be filed with a District Forum by the States Government as a representative of the interest of the consumers in general

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