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UPSC PRELIMS QUESTION PAPERS

1995-2005 PRELIMS ORIGINAL POLITY QUESTION PAPER

1. Cosnsider the table given below providing some details of the results of the election to the Karnataka State Legislature Assembly held in December 1994:
Political     percentage of        number of 
Party          popular Votes           seats 
                        Obtained            secured 
Janta Dal          36                      116
Congress           31                       35
BJP                   20.4                    40
In terms of electoral analysis, the voter-seat distortion is to be explained as the result of the adoption of the 
 (a) hare system  (b) cumulative vote system 
 (c) first-past-the post system 
 (d) plural vote system
 
2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?
(a)  The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Electronic commission 
(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States 
(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned  
(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election commission 
 
3.Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extralegal device’s for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India?
1. The Naitonal Development Counicl 
2. The Governor’s Conference 
3. Zonal Councils 
(a) 1 and 2  (b) 1,3, and 4  (c) 3 and 4  (d) 4 only
 
4. Which of the following are the objectives of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)?
1. To stabilize agricultural prices 
2. To ensure meaningful real income levels to the farmers
3. To protect the interest of the consumers of providing essential agricultural commodities at reasonable rates through public distribution system
4. To ensure maximum price for the farmer 
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1,2 and 4 (c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4 
 
5.Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature of not less than one-half of the state?
1. Election of the Presiden 
2. Representation of states in parliament 
3. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislature Council of a state 
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1,2 and 4 (c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4 
 
6. Consider the table given below

Parliament

Council of states

House of the people

 

Not more than 250 members

Not more than 552 members

2 nominated

No more than 238 representatives of States and Union Territories

Not more than 530 representative of states plus not more than 2 nominated anglo Indians

 
which one of the following will fit the place marked ‘X’?
(a)  Ministers who are not members of Parliament either House of parliament within six months after assuming 
(b) Not more than 20 nominated members  
(c) Not more than 20 representative of Union Territories  
(d) The Attorney General who has the right to speak and take part in the proceeding of either House of Palmist 
 
7. Who among the following have the right ot vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Elected members of the Lower House to vote          (b)  Elected members of the Upper Hoerscda
(c) Elected members of the Upper House of the state Legislature 
(d) Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature
 
8. Which one of the following state of Indian does not have a Legislative Council so far even though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Bihar  (c) Karnataka   (d) Madhya Pradesh 
 
9. In the interim government formed in 1946 the vice president of the Executive Council was 
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru  (b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan  (c) C. Rajagopalachari  (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 
 
10. Article 156 of the Contitution of the India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five year from the date on which he enters upon his office.  which of the following can be deduced from this 
1. No Governor can be removed from office till the completion of his term
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years 
(a) 1 only  (b) 2 only  (c) both 1 and 2  (d) neither
 
11. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Rights classifiable under 
(a) the Right against Exploitation 
(b) the Right against Exploitation 
(c) the Cultural and Educational Rights
(d) the Right to Equality
 
12. In which on one of the states of India it is legal for a Hindu male and illegal for a muslim male to have more than one living wife?
(a) Nagaland      (b) Mizoram     (c) Goa     (d) Arunachal Pradesh 
 
13. Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constituion of India but followed as a convention?
(a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House  
(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower House  
(c) All the parts of India are to be represented in the Councils of Ministers  
(d) In the event of both President and the Vice-President demitting office simultaneously the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President 
 
14. Which of the following are the states in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief Minister in its ambit?
(a) West Bengal and Kerala  
(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra  
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa 
(d) Rajasthan and Karnataka
 
15. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India?
(a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the federal system 
(b) 30% of the seals in local bodies are reserved for women  
(c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission 
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a commission
 
16. Which of the following political parties is/are national political parties?
1. Muslims League 
2. Revolutionary Socialist Party
3. All India Forward Block
4. Peasants and Workers party of India
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 3 only (d) none 
 
17. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly the candidate who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that 
(a)  the polling was very poor 
(b)  the election was for a multi-member constituency
(c) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marignal 
 (d) a very large number of candidates contested the election
 
18.If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that state will be
(a) 21    (b)  14 (c)  7 (d) 6
 
19. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the State falls under its
(a) advisory jurisdiction 
(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction 
(d) constitutional jurisdiction
 
20. Of the four forms of political protests mentioned below, which one is derived from the name of the persons who used it as a political weapon for the first time?
(a) Boycott  (b) Gherao  (c) Bandh  (d) Hartal 
 
21. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to 
(a) the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the other judges of the High court 
(b) Special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India 
(c) discretionary powers of the Governor of the state 
(d) special powers provided to the Chief Ministers in this regarded
 
22. According to the constitution of India the term ‘district judge’ shall not include?
(a) Chief presidency magistrate 
(b) sessions judges 
(c) tribunal judge
(d) chief judge of a small court
 
23. Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the forum for his impeachment ?
(a)  Lok Sabha 
(b) Rajya Sabha  
(c) State Legislative Counicls  
(d) State Legislative Assemblies 
 
24. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up?
(a) Single tier structure of local self government at the village level  
(b) Two tier system of local self government at the village and block levels 
(c) Three tier structure of local self government at the village, block and district levels 
(d) Four tier system of local self government at the village block, district and state levels
 
25. Consider the following statements 
No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since
1. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of speech and expression 
2. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of conscience and practis and propagation of religion 
3. there is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the Natinal 
(a) 1 and 2 are correct             (b) 2 and 3 are correct 
(c) 1,2 and 3 are correct          (d) none is correct
 
26. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Is free to choose his ministers of either House of the Parliament 
(b) Can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counseling by the President of India in this regard
(c) Has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet 
(d) Has only limited power in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary powers vested with the President of India
 
27. Give below are two statements, one labeled as 
Assertion (A):  The word minority is not defined in the Constitution of India
Reason(R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body 
(a) Both a and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A  
(c) A is true but R is false 
(d) A is false, but r is true
 
28. Which one of the following countries had more or less evolved a two-party system?
(a)  Sri Lanka  (b) Bangladesh  (c) Pakistan   (d) Myanmar
 
29. In which one of the following countries will the no-confidence motion to bring down the government passed by the simultaneously a majority to elect successor government?
(a) France       (b) Germany        (c) Italy         (d) Portugal 
 
30. Which one of the following was not proposd by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?
(a) Thirty per-cent seats in all elected rural local boides
(b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj institutions  
(c) The Pachayati Raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children 
(d) The election will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded or dissolved by the State government 
 
31.Proportional representation is not necessary in a country where
(a) There are no reserved constituencies 
(b) a two-party system has developed 
(c) the first –past-post system prevails 
(d) there is a fusion of presidential and parliamentary forms of government 
 
32. State funding of elections takes place in 
(a) USA and Canada  
(b) Britain and Switzerland 
(c) France and Italy 
(d) Germany and Austria
 
33. The concept of public Interest litigation originated in 
(a) Unite kingdom  (b) Australia  (c) The United States  (d) Canada
 
34. If the Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament
(a) he will not be above to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
(b) he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House 
(c) he can make statements only in the Upper House  
(d) he has to become a member of the lower house within six months after being sworn in as the Prime Minister
 
35. Give below are two statements, one labeled as 
Assertion (A):  The reservation of thirty-three per-cent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislative does not require Constitutional amendment
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three percent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment 
(a) Both a and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A  
(c) A is true but R is false 
(d) A is false, but r is true
 
36. In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousands in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression “population” here means the population as ascertained by the 
(a) 1991 census  (b) 1981 Census  (c) 1971 Census  (d) 1961 Census 
 
37. Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?
1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament 
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses 
choose the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) neither 1 nor 2  (b) both 1 and 2  
(c) 1 alone                (d) 2 alone 
 
38. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer 
List I ( Functionaries )
(a) president of India 
(b) Judges of Supreme Court
(c) Members of Parliament 
(d) Ministers for the Union
List II (Oaths or affirmations)
1. Secrecy of information
2.  Faithful Discharge of duties 
3. Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution of India
4. Upholding the Constitution and the law 
 (a) 2451  (b) 1324   (c) 4523   (d) 4321
 
39. In the following quotation 
“WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solenly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens:
Justice, social ,economic and political, Liberty of thought , expression, belief faith and worship
Equality of status and of opportunity and to promote among  them all
Fraternity assuring the dignity of the Individual and the unity and the integrity of the National
In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution”, ‘X’ stands for
(a) twenty-sixth day of January 1950 
(b) twenty-sixth day of November 1949
(c) twenty –sixth day of January 1949 
(d) None of the above
 
40. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has
(a) both a real and a nominal executive  
(b) a system of collective responsibility 
(c) bicameral legislature 
(d) the system of judicial review
 
41. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has
(a) both a real and a nominal executive  
(b) a system of collective responsibility
(c) bicameral legislature  
(d) the system of judicial review 
 
42. Panchayat Raj was first introduced in India in October, 1959 in
(a) Rajasthan  (b) Tamil Nadu  (c) Kerala  (d) Karnataka
 
43. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection Act?
(a) Second Scheduled  (b) Fifth Scheduled  
(c) Eighth Scheduled  (d) Tenth Scheduled 
 
44. Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of India 
1. Its Chairman must be retired Chief Justice of India
2. It has formation in each state as State Human Rights Commission
3. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature 
4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1,2,3 and 4  (b) 2 and 4  (c) 2 and 3  (d) 1and  3
 
45. The Constitution of India recognizes
(a) Only religious minorities  
(b) Only linguistic minorities  
(c) Religious and linguistic minorities  
(d) Religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities 
 
46. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating from the past.  Which one of the following is not one such provisions?
(a) a number of added responsibilities in the area of agricultural rural development, primary education and social forestry among other  
 (b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due
 (c) A statutory representation for woman in the panchayats, up to a third of the strength 
(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability
 
47. Consider the following statements 
An amendment to the Constitution of Indian can be initiated by the 
1. Lok Sabha             2. Rajya Sabha 
3. State legislature  4. President 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 alone     (b) 1, 2 and 3  (c) 2, 3and  4  (d) 1and 2 
 
48. Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the elections law by the Representation of the People (Amendment ) Act 1966
1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag or the Constitution of Indian shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to parliament and states Legislatures for six year from the date of conviction
2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to  contest the election to the Lok Sabha 
3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliament Constitutency
4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3        (b) 1,2 and 4        (c) 1 and 3   (d) 1,2,3 and  4
 
49. A British citizen staying in India cannot clain right to:
(a)  Freedom of trade and profession 
(b) Equality before the Law  
(c) Protection of life and personal  
(d) Freedom of religion 
 
50. The following news item appeared in a National daily dated 1-12-1999
“..Parliament today rejected a Bill to grant women the right to vote and stand for office in parliamentary elections, by a margin of 32 to 30 
The National Assembly was split between liberal pro-government and Shiite Muslim deputies who were in favour of women’s rights, while the opposition camp grouped Sunni Muslim fundamentalists and tribal MPs
A total of 64 MPs  and Ministers were present, of whom two abstained”
The parliament referred to in this quotation is that of 
(a)  Kuwait         (b) Iran        (c) Bahrain  (d) Saudi Arabia 
 
51. The parliament can make any law for the whole or any part India for implementing International treaties
(a) with the consent of all the State 
(b)with the consent of the majority of states 
(c) with the consent of the States concerned  
(d) without the consent of any State
 
52. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?
(a) A money Bill can be tabled in either House of parliament  
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not   
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration
 
53. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the 
(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the under employed men and women in rural area 
(b) generatoion of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work durig the lean agricultural reason  
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the Country 
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person equality before law and equal protection without discrimination 
 
54. The speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak.  This phenomenon is known as
(a) decorum      (b) crossing the floor  (c) interpellation  (d) yielding the floor
 
55. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India
(a) He is appointed by the President of India  
(b) He must have the same qualification as are required for a judge of the Supreme Court 
(c) He must be a member of either House of Parliament  
(d) He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament 
which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2        (b) 1 and 3  (c) 2,3 and 4  (d) 3 and  4
 
56. Consider the following functionaries 
1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner 
3. Union Cabinet Minister 
4. Chief Justice of India
There correct sequence in the Order of Precedence  is 
(a) 3421  (b) 4312   (c) 4321  (d) 3412
 
57. The Primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to 
(a) distribution revenue between the Centre and the States 
(b) prepare the Annual Budget  
(c) advise the President on financial matters  
(d) allocate funds to various ministers of the Union and State Governments
 
58. A college student desires to get elected t the Municipal Council of his city.  The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that:
(a) he obtains permission form the principle of his college  
(b) he is a member of a political party 
(c) his name figures in the voter’s list  
(d) he files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India
 
59. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer 
List I ( Local bodies )
(a) Zilla Parishads at the sub-divisional level  
(b) Mandal Praja Parishad
(c) Tribal Councils 
(d) Absence of village panchayats
List II (states as in 1999)
1. Andhra Pradesh 
2.  Assam
3. Mizoram 
4. Meghalaya 
(a) 2143  (b) 1243   (c) 3214   (d) 2134
 
60. which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the Endeavour of every state to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?
(a) Article 349 (b) Article 350 (c) Article 350A (d) Article 351
 
61. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the Presiden ton a matter of law or fact
(a) on its own initiative  
(b) only if he seeks such advice  
(c) only if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights of citizens
(d) only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the occur
 
62. Which one of the following duties is not performed by Comptroller and Auditor general of India?
(a) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India 
(b) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts  
(c) To audit and report on all trading manufacturing profit and loss accounts 
(d) To control the receipt and issue of public money and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer 
 
63. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer 
List I (Publisher )
(a) Ministry of industry 
(b) Central Statistical Organization 
(c) Reserve Ban of India 
(d) Ministry of Finance
List II (Publication)
1. Report on Currency and Finance 
2.  Economic Survey
3. Wholesale Price Index 
4. National Accounts Statistics
(a) 4321  (b) 3412   (c) 4312   (d) 3421
 
64. Which one of the following  statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states 
(b) It contains the language listed in the Constitution 
(c) It contains the language listed in the Constitution  
(d)It allocates sets in the Council of states 
 
65. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?
1. Through Parliamentary Committees
2. Through Consultative Committee of various ministries 
3. By making the administrators send periodic reports 
4. By compelling the executive to issue writs
 
66. Consider the following statements about the minorities India
1. The Government of Inida has notified five commities, namely, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists and Zero astrians as Minorities
2. The national Commission for minorities was given statutory status in 1993
3. the smallest religious minority in India are the Zoroastrians 
4. The Constitution of India recognizes and protects religious and linguistic minorities 
which of these statements are corrects?
(a) 2 and 3  (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2,3 and 4  (d) 1,2 and 4 
 
67. In which one of the following areas does the state Government not have control over its local bodies?
(a) Citizen’s grievances  
(b) Financial matters  
(c) Legislation  
(d) Personnel matters
 
68.Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India
1. There are eighteen High Courts in the country
2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one state
3. No Union Territory has High Court of its own 
4. Judges of the High Court hold office  till the age of 62
which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 4  (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4  (d) 4 only 
 
69. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer 
List I (Amendments to the Constitution) )
(a) The constitution (sixty-ninth Amendments) act, 1991
(b) The constitution (Seventy –fifth Amendment)
(c) The Constitution (Eighteenth Amendment) Act, 2000
(d) The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2000
List II 
1. Establishment of state level Rent Tribunals 
2.  No reservations for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh 
3. constitution of Panchayats in villages or at other local level
4. Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission 
5. According the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi
(a) 5142  (b) 1534   (c) 5134   (d) 1542
 
70. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created which one of the following schedules of the Constitution must be amended?
(a) First  (b) Second  (c) Third  (d) Fifth
 
71. Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India
1. The Representation of the people Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political parties 
2. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission
3. A national level political party is one which is recognized in four or more states 
4. During the 1999 general elections, there were six national and 48state level parties recognized by the Election commission
which of these statement are correc?
(a) 1,2 and 4  (b) 1 and  3 (c) 2 and 4  (d) 1,2 ,3 and 4 
 
72. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer 
List I (Article of the Constitution )
(a) Article 54 
(b) Article 75
(c) Article 155
(d) Article  164
List II (Content)
1. Election of the President of India
2.  Appointment of the Prime Minister
3. Appointment of the Governor of a State
4. Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of ministers of a state
5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies
(a) 1234  (b) 1245   (c) 2135   (d) 2143
 
73. With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a)  Planning Commission is accountable to Parliament
(b) President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session  
(c) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court is 40 years 
(d) National development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Ministers of all the states
 
74. In the Indian Costitution, the Right to equality is granted by five Articles. they are
(a) Article 16 to Atricle 20 
(b) Article 15 to Atricle 19
(c) Article 14 to Atricle 18
(d) Article 13 to Atricle 17
 
75. Which one of the following amendment s to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?
(a) 39th  (b) 40th  (c) 42nd  (d) 44th 
 
76. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish
(a) political democracy 
(b) social democracy 
(c) Gandhian democracy  
(d) social and economic democracy
 
77. which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?
      (a) 51  (b) 48 a  (c) 43 A  (d) 41 
 
78. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and sould of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion  
(b) Right to property
(c) Right to equality
(d) Right to Constitutional remedies
 
79. Consider the following Statements with reference to India
1. The Chief Election Commission and other Election Commission enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries 
2. The chief Election Commissioner is netitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme court
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court
4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier
which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2  (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4  (d) 2 and 4 
 
80.The Consulative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constitutes by the 
(a) President of India 
(b) Ministry of Railways  
(c) Ministry of Parliament Affairs 
(d) Ministry of Transport
 
81. Five year plan in India is finally approved by 
(a) Union Cabinet  
(b) President on the advice of Prime Minister  
(c) Planning Commission  
(d) National Development Council 
 
82. Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants –in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a)  Finance Commission 
(b) Inter-State Council 
(c) Union Ministry of Finance 
(d) Public Accounts Committee
 
83. The term of Lok Sabha 
(a) cannot be extended under nay circumstances  (b) can be extended by one year at a time during 
(c) can be extended by on year at a time during the proclamation of emergency 
(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
 
84. In the age of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of security deposited  for general category candidates and SC/ST category candidates respectively
(a) Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 2,500  
(b) Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 5,000  
(c) Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 5,000  
(d) Rs. 15,000 and Rs. 7,500  
 
85. The 93rd Constitution Amendment deals with the 
(a) continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment  
(b) free and compulsory education for all children he been the age of 6 and 14 years 
(c) reservation of 30 percent posts for women in government recruitments 
(d) allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created states
 
86. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer 
List I (Article of Indian Constitution )
(a) Article 16 (2)
(b) Article 29 (2)
(c) Article 30 (1) 
(d) Article 31 (1) 
List II (Provisions)
1. No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law  
2.  No person can be discriminated against in the matter of public appointment on the ground of race, religious or caste
3. All minorities whether base on religion or language shall have to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
4. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the state, or receiving state aid, on grounds of religion race, caste, language or any of them 
(a) 2431  (b) 3142   (c) 2134   (d) 3421
 
87. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the 
(a) Consolidated Fund of India 
(b) Consolidated Fund of the State 
(c) Consolidated Fund of the India 
(d) Consolidated Fund of the State
 
88. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by 
(a) First Amendment  
(b) Eighth Amendment 
(c) Ninth Amendment 
(d) Forty second Amendment
 
89. Consider the following statements
1. The joint sitting of the two house of the parliament in India is sanctioned under Articles 108 of the Constitution
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses fo Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking services commission (Repeal) Bill 
which of these statements is correc?
(a) 1 and 2  (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4  (d) 1,2 and 3 
 
90. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his asset to the ordinance on electrol reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes  in the year 2002?
(a) Article 121 (b) Article 122 (c) Article 123  (d) Article 124 
 
91. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and no the Lok Sabha can have nominated members 
(b) There is a constitutional provisions for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha  
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice presidential election 
 
92. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union list of Legislative powers rests with:
(a) President of India 
(b) The Chief Justice of India 
(c) The Parliament  
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice an Company Affairs 
 
93. Which one of the following High Courts has the Terriotorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
(a) Andhra Pradesh  (b) Calcutta  (c) Madras  (d) Orissa
 
94. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the president make a reference to the supreme court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s descision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly 
(a) Article 142 (b) Article 143  (c) Article 144 (d) Article 145
 
95. Consider the following statements 
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on public Accounts and public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha 
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nomintes Members of Parliament on committee, councils Board and Commissions etc set up by the government of india in the various ministers
which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2  (b) 2 and  3 (c) 1 and 3  (d) 1,2 and 3 
 
96. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?
(a) Deputy Prime Minister                       (b) Former President 
(c) Governor of a state within his state  (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
 
97. Which one of the following statements is Not correct?
(a) The Press Council of India is an autonomous quasi-judicial body established under an Act of Parliament  
(b) The press information Bureau provides accreditation to media person so as to have easy access to information from government  sources
(c) Among all the states of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest number of newspaper 
(d) Press Trust of India is the largest news agency in the country
 
98. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra  Chatterji originally in Bengali  
(b) The National Calendar of India based on Saka era has its 1st Chaitra on 22 March normally and 21st March in a leap year 
(c) The design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July 1947 
(d) The Song ‘Jana-hana-mana’, composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore was adopted in its Hindi version by the constituent Assembly on 24th January, 1950 as the National Anthem of India
 
99. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance?
(a) Article 215 (b) Article 275  (c) Article 325  (d) Article 355
 
100. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer 
List I (Item in the Indian Constitution )
(a) Directive Principles of State policy
(b) Fundamental Rights 
(c) Conccurrent List in Union-state Relations
(d) India as a Union of Stateswith greater powers to the Union
List II (Country from which it was derived )
1. Aurstalia 
2.  Canada 
3. Ireland 
4. United Kingdom 
5. United States of America  
(a) 5412  (b) 3521   (c) 5421   (d) 3512
 
101. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian parliamentary separately by special majority?
(a) Ordinary Bill  (b) Money Bill  (c) Finance Bill  (d) Constitution Amendment Bill
 
102. Consider the following statements 
The function (s) of the Finance commission is/are 
1. to allow the withdrawal of the money out of the Consolidated Fund of India 
2. to allocate between the states the shares of proceeds of taxes 
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from states
4. to supervise and report on wheather the Union 
and states governmentsare levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provinsions 
which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) only 1  (b)2 and  3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1,2 and 4
 
103.Consider the following statements
In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India
1. the value of the vote of an elected member of Legislative Assembly equals statepopulation/(numberof elected MLAs of the state)×100 
2. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals. Total value of the votes of all elected MLA’ s Total number of elected MP’s 
3. there were more than 5000 members in latest elections 
which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2  (b) only 2  (c) 1 and 3  (d) only 3
 
104. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Lok Sabha to be elected form the states?
(a)  6th and 22nd (b) 13th and 38th  (c) 7th and 31st  (d) 11th and 42nd 
 
105. Survey of India is under the ministry of 
(a) Defence            (b) Environmen and Forests  
(c) Home Affairs  (d) Science and Technology
 
106. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifes their territories?
(a) Iceland  (b) India  (c) New Zealand  (d) U.S.A
 
107. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?
(a)  First   (b) Second (c) Third  (d) Fourth
 
108. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements
1. Disbursements from public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament 
2. The Indian constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a public Account and a Contigency Fund for each State
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements
which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2   (b)2 and  3       (c) 1 and 3      (d) 1,2 and 3
 
109. The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department/Ministry of 
(a) Culture  (b) Tourism  (c) Science and Technology  (d) Human Resource Development 
 
110. Consider the following statements 
1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Session Judge 
2. The District Judge are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts 
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years’ standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State
4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before it is carried out
which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2   (b) 2, 3and 4  (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1,2,3 and 4
 
111. Consider the following statements 
1. The speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the house sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House 
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President 
3. The Speaker of Lik Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until immediately before the first meeting of the house
 
112. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based  
(b) In the case of a no –confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rulers 
(c) A motion of no-confidence once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted 
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of non-confidence 
 
113. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a)  It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States 
(b) It Contains the language listed in the Constitution  
(c) It contains of provision regarding the administration of tribal areas 
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of states
 
114. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the 
(a) Lok Sabha alone  
(b) Either House of Parliament  
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament  
(d) Rajya Sabha alone 
 
115. With reference to the Constitution of India which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched, 
(a) Forests :Concurrent List  
(b) Stock Exchange :Concurrent List  
(c) Post Office Savings Bank : Union List  
(d) Public Health : State List 
 
116. Consider the following tasks:
1. superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, state Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President 
3. Giving recognition to political, parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the centre of election disputes
which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of Inida?
(a)1,2 and 3  (b) 2,3 and 4  (c) 1 and  3  (d) 1,2 and  4
 
117. Consider the following statements 
1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the planning Commission of India 
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National Development Council
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh schedule of the Constitution of India 
which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 and 2  (b) 2 and 3 (c) only 2  (d) only 3
 
118. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?
(a) the Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before if can be enacted into law 
(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act 
(c) Finance bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rate of taxes which are already under operation.
(d) No money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President 
 
119. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every state shall be so exercise as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?
(a) Article 257 (b) Article 258 (c) Article 355  (d) Article 358
 
120.  Match list I with list II and select the correct answer 
List I 
(a) Article 14 
(b) Article 15
(c) Article  16
(d) Article 117
List II 
1. The State shall  not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex place of birth or any of term 
2.  The state shall not deny to any person equality
3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any from is forbidden 
4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the state
(a) 2413  (b) 3142   (c) 2143   (d) 3412
 
121. Assertion (A): The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to improve the quality of life of rural people in India
Reason(R) : Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of Inida 
In the context of above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
 (a) Both a and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A  
(c) A is true but R is false 
(d) A is false, but r is true
 
122. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall the employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment ?
(a) Article 24 (b) Article 45 (c) Article 330 (d) Article 368
 
123. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following can be its Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court 
(b) Any serving judge of the high court
(c) Onl a retired chief justice of land  
(d) only a retired chief justice of a high court 
 
124. Who among  the following 
(a) K.V.K Sudaram  (b) G.S. Dhillon  
(c) Balirma Bhagat  (d) Hukum Singh
 
125. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched
Departments
1. Department of Women and Child Development 
2. Department of Official language
3. Department of Drinking Water Supply 
Ministry of the Government of India
i. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
ii. Ministry of Human Resource Development
iii. Ministy of Water Resources
select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1  (b) 2  (c) 3  (d) none 
 
126. Consider the following events
1. Fourth general elections in India 
2. Formation of Haryana State
3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full states 
which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
(a) 2143  (b) 4321  (c) 2341  (d) 4123
 
127. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the Warrant of precedence?
(a) Attorney General of India – Judges of the Supreme Court – Members of Parliament – Deputy Chariman of Rajya Sabha  
(b) Judges of the Supreme court – Deputy Chariman of Rajya Sabha –Attoney General of India Members of Parliament  
(c) Attorney General of India Deputy Chairma of Rajya Sabha –Judge of the supreme court – members of parliament 
(d) Judges of the supreme court – Attomey General of India – Deputy Cairman of Rajya Sabha – Members of Parliament 
 
128. Consider the following 
1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies 
2. Motor accident cases
3. Pension cases
for which of the above are Lok Adalats held?
(a) 1 only  (b)  1 and 2  (c) 2 only   (d) 1,2 and 3 
 
129. Consider the following statements 
1. Part IX of the Constitution of India provisions for Panchyats and was inserted by constitution (Amendment ) Act 1992
2. Par IX of the Constitution of india contains 243 Q envisages two types of municipalities a municipal council and a Municipal corporation for every state
which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only  (b)  2 only   (c) 1 and 2  (d) neither 1 nor 2 
 
130. Consider the following statements 
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa 
2. Constitution of India and the United States of America envisage a dual policy (The Union and the estates) but a single citizenship. 
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship
which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1,2 and 3  (b) 1 and3  (c) 3 only  (d) 1 only
 
131. Consider the following statements
1. Article 301 pertains to the right to property
2. Right t property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right 
3. Article 300 A was inserted in the constitutional Amendment
which of the statement given above is/are correct
 (a) 2 only  (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3  (d) 1,2 and 3 
 
132. The Constitution (98th Amendment ) Act is related to 
(a) empowering the canter to levy and appropriate service tax 
(b) the Constitution of the National Judicial Commission  
(c) readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the population census 2001 
(d) the demarcation of new boundaries between states
 
133. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the food and Nutrition Board work?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture  
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare  
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development  (d) Ministry of Rural Development
 
134. Consider the following statements 
1. The constitution of India has 40 parts 
2. there are 390 Articles in the constitution of India in all 
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh , and twelfth schedules were added to the constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts
which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2  (b)  2 only  (c) 3 only   (d) 1,2 and 3 
 
135. Who among the following was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar       (b) J.B. Kripalani  
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru  (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
 
136. Consider the following statements 
1. The Constitution of the Unite States of America came into force in year 1810
2. All revenue bills must originate in the house of Representative of the US Congress
3. George W.Bush is the only president in the history of the United States of America 
which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only  (b)  2 only   (c) 1 and 2  (d) 2 and 3 
 
137. Consider the following statements 
1. The parliament of Russia is called Federal Assembly
2. The Council of the Federation in the Russian Parliament is the lower house 
3. The name of the upper house in the Russian parliament is state Duma 
which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1,2 and 3  (b) 1 and 2  (c) 2 and 3   (d) 1only
 
138. Consider the following statements 
1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the constitution 
2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the concerned Chie Justice and the administrative expenses are charged on the Conslidated fund of India 
which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only  (b)  2 only   (c) 1 and 2  (d) neither 1 nor 2 
 
139. Consider the following statements 
1.There are 25 High Courts in India
2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court 
3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own
which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3  (b) 1 and 2  (c) 1,2 and 3   (d) 3only
 
140. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer 
List I 
(a) Netherlands 
(b) Ukraine  
(c) Poland  
(d) Japan  
List II 
1. Diet  
2.  States General 
3. Supreme Council
4. Sejm
(a) 4123  (b) 2341   (c) 4321   (d) 2143

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