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1. Cosnsider the table given below providing some details of the results of the election to the Karnataka State Legislature Assembly held in December 1994:
Political     percentage of        number of 
Party          popular Votes           seats 
                        Obtained            secured 
Janta Dal          36                      116
Congress           31                       35
BJP                   20.4                    40
In terms of electoral analysis, the voter-seat distortion is to be explained as the result of the adoption of the 
 (a) hare system  (b) cumulative vote system 
 (c) first-past-the post system 
 (d) plural vote system
2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?
(a)  The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Electronic commission 
(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States 
(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned  
(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election commission 
3.Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extralegal device’s for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India?
1. The Naitonal Development Counicl 
2. The Governor’s Conference 
3. Zonal Councils 
(a) 1 and 2  (b) 1,3, and 4  (c) 3 and 4  (d) 4 only
4. Which of the following are the objectives of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)?
1. To stabilize agricultural prices 
2. To ensure meaningful real income levels to the farmers
3. To protect the interest of the consumers of providing essential agricultural commodities at reasonable rates through public distribution system
4. To ensure maximum price for the farmer 
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1,2 and 4 (c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4 
5.Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature of not less than one-half of the state?
1. Election of the Presiden 
2. Representation of states in parliament 
3. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislature Council of a state 
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1,2 and 4 (c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4 
6. Consider the table given below


Council of states

House of the people


Not more than 250 members

Not more than 552 members

2 nominated

No more than 238 representatives of States and Union Territories

Not more than 530 representative of states plus not more than 2 nominated anglo Indians

which one of the following will fit the place marked ‘X’?
(a)  Ministers who are not members of Parliament either House of parliament within six months after assuming 
(b) Not more than 20 nominated members  
(c) Not more than 20 representative of Union Territories  
(d) The Attorney General who has the right to speak and take part in the proceeding of either House of Palmist 
7. Who among the following have the right ot vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Elected members of the Lower House to vote          (b)  Elected members of the Upper Hoerscda
(c) Elected members of the Upper House of the state Legislature 
(d) Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature
8. Which one of the following state of Indian does not have a Legislative Council so far even though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Bihar  (c) Karnataka   (d) Madhya Pradesh 
9. In the interim government formed in 1946 the vice president of the Executive Council was 
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru  (b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan  (c) C. Rajagopalachari  (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 
10. Article 156 of the Contitution of the India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five year from the date on which he enters upon his office.  which of the following can be deduced from this 
1. No Governor can be removed from office till the completion of his term
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years 
(a) 1 only  (b) 2 only  (c) both 1 and 2  (d) neither
11. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Rights classifiable under 
(a) the Right against Exploitation 
(b) the Right against Exploitation 
(c) the Cultural and Educational Rights
(d) the Right to Equality
12. In which on one of the states of India it is legal for a Hindu male and illegal for a muslim male to have more than one living wife?
(a) Nagaland      (b) Mizoram     (c) Goa     (d) Arunachal Pradesh 
13. Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constituion of India but followed as a convention?
(a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House  
(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower House  
(c) All the parts of India are to be represented in the Councils of Ministers  
(d) In the event of both President and the Vice-President demitting office simultaneously the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President 
14. Which of the following are the states in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief Minister in its ambit?
(a) West Bengal and Kerala  
(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra  
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa 
(d) Rajasthan and Karnataka
15. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India?
(a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the federal system 
(b) 30% of the seals in local bodies are reserved for women  
(c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission 
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a commission
16. Which of the following political parties is/are national political parties?
1. Muslims League 
2. Revolutionary Socialist Party
3. All India Forward Block
4. Peasants and Workers party of India
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 3 only (d) none 
17. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly the candidate who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that 
(a)  the polling was very poor 
(b)  the election was for a multi-member constituency
(c) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marignal 
 (d) a very large number of candidates contested the election
18.If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that state will be
(a) 21    (b)  14 (c)  7 (d) 6
19. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the State falls under its
(a) advisory jurisdiction 
(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction 
(d) constitutional jurisdiction
20. Of the four forms of political protests mentioned below, which one is derived from the name of the persons who used it as a political weapon for the first time?
(a) Boycott  (b) Gherao  (c) Bandh  (d) Hartal 
21. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to 
(a) the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the other judges of the High court 
(b) Special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India 
(c) discretionary powers of the Governor of the state 
(d) special powers provided to the Chief Ministers in this regarded
22. According to the constitution of India the term ‘district judge’ shall not include?
(a) Chief presidency magistrate 
(b) sessions judges 
(c) tribunal judge
(d) chief judge of a small court
23. Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the forum for his impeachment ?
(a)  Lok Sabha 
(b) Rajya Sabha  
(c) State Legislative Counicls  
(d) State Legislative Assemblies 
24. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up?
(a) Single tier structure of local self government at the village level  
(b) Two tier system of local self government at the village and block levels 
(c) Three tier structure of local self government at the village, block and district levels 
(d) Four tier system of local self government at the village block, district and state levels
25. Consider the following statements 
No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since
1. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of speech and expression 
2. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of conscience and practis and propagation of religion 
3. there is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the Natinal 
(a) 1 and 2 are correct             (b) 2 and 3 are correct 
(c) 1,2 and 3 are correct          (d) none is correct
26. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Is free to choose his ministers of either House of the Parliament 
(b) Can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counseling by the President of India in this regard
(c) Has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet 
(d) Has only limited power in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary powers vested with the President of India
27. Give below are two statements, one labeled as 
Assertion (A):  The word minority is not defined in the Constitution of India
Reason(R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body 
(a) Both a and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A  
(c) A is true but R is false 
(d) A is false, but r is true
28. Which one of the following countries had more or less evolved a two-party system?
(a)  Sri Lanka  (b) Bangladesh  (c) Pakistan   (d) Myanmar
29. In which one of the following countries will the no-confidence motion to bring down the government passed by the simultaneously a majority to elect successor government?
(a) France       (b) Germany        (c) Italy         (d) Portugal 
30. Which one of the following was not proposd by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?
(a) Thirty per-cent seats in all elected rural local boides
(b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj institutions  
(c) The Pachayati Raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children 
(d) The election will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded or dissolved by the State government 
31.Proportional representation is not necessary in a country where
(a) There are no reserved constituencies 
(b) a two-party system has developed 
(c) the first –past-post system prevails 
(d) there is a fusion of presidential and parliamentary forms of government 
32. State funding of elections takes place in 
(a) USA and Canada  
(b) Britain and Switzerland 
(c) France and Italy 
(d) Germany and Austria
33. The concept of public Interest litigation originated in 
(a) Unite kingdom  (b) Australia  (c) The United States  (d) Canada
34. If the Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament
(a) he will not be above to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
(b) he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House 
(c) he can make statements only in the Upper House  
(d) he has to become a member of the lower house within six months after being sworn in as the Prime Minister
35. Give below are two statements, one labeled as 
Assertion (A):  The reservation of thirty-three per-cent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislative does not require Constitutional amendment
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three percent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment 
(a) Both a and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A  
(c) A is true but R is false 
(d) A is false, but r is true
36. In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousands in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression “population” here means the population as ascertained by the 
(a) 1991 census  (b) 1981 Census  (c) 1971 Census  (d) 1961 Census 
37. Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?
1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament 
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses 
choose the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) neither 1 nor 2  (b) both 1 and 2  
(c) 1 alone                (d) 2 alone 
38. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer 
List I ( Functionaries )
(a) president of India 
(b) Judges of Supreme Court
(c) Members of Parliament 
(d) Ministers for the Union
List II (Oaths or affirmations)
1. Secrecy of information
2.  Faithful Discharge of duties 
3. Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution of India
4. Upholding the Constitution and the law 
 (a) 2451  (b) 1324   (c) 4523   (d) 4321
39. In the following quotation 
“WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solenly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens:
Justice, social ,economic and political, Liberty of thought , expression, belief faith and worship
Equality of status and of opportunity and to promote among  them all
Fraternity assuring the dignity of the Individual and the unity and the integrity of the National
In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution”, ‘X’ stands for
(a) twenty-sixth day of January 1950 
(b) twenty-sixth day of November 1949
(c) twenty –sixth day of January 1949 
(d) None of the above
40. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has
(a) both a real and a nominal executive  
(b) a system of collective responsibility 
(c) bicameral legislature 
(d) the system of judicial review
41. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has
(a) both a real and a nominal executive  
(b) a system of collective responsibility
(c) bicameral legislature  
(d) the system of judicial review 
42. Panchayat Raj was first introduced in India in October, 1959 in
(a) Rajasthan  (b) Tamil Nadu  (c) Kerala  (d) Karnataka
43. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection Act?
(a) Second Scheduled  (b) Fifth Scheduled  
(c) Eighth Scheduled  (d) Tenth Scheduled 
44. Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of India 
1. Its Chairman must be retired Chief Justice of India
2. It has formation in each state as State Human Rights Commission
3. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature 
4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1,2,3 and 4  (b) 2 and 4  (c) 2 and 3  (d) 1and  3
45. The Constitution of India recognizes
(a) Only religious minorities  
(b) Only linguistic minorities  
(c) Religious and linguistic minorities  
(d) Religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities 
46. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating from the past.  Which one of the following is not one such provisions?
(a) a number of added responsibilities in the area of agricultural rural development, primary education and social forestry among other  
 (b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due
 (c) A statutory representation for woman in the panchayats, up to a third of the strength 
(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability
47. Consider the following statements 
An amendment to the Constitution of Indian can be initiated by the 
1. Lok Sabha             2. Rajya Sabha 
3. State legislature  4. President 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 alone     (b) 1, 2 and 3  (c) 2, 3and  4  (d) 1and 2 
48. Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the elections law by the Representation of the People (Amendment ) Act 1966
1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag or the Constitution of Indian shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to parliament and states Legislatures for six year from the date of conviction
2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to  contest the election to the Lok Sabha 
3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliament Constitutency
4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3        (b) 1,2 and 4        (c) 1 and 3   (d) 1,2,3 and  4
49. A British citizen staying in India cannot clain right to:
(a)  Freedom of trade and profession 
(b) Equality before the Law  
(c) Protection of life and personal  
(d) Freedom of religion 
50. The following news item appeared in a National daily dated 1-12-1999
“..Parliament today rejected a Bill to grant women the right to vote and stand for office in parliamentary elections, by a margin of 32 to 30 
The National Assembly was split between liberal pro-government and Shiite Muslim deputies who were in favour of women’s rights, while the opposition camp grouped Sunni Muslim fundamentalists and tribal MPs
A total of 64 MPs  and Ministers were present, of whom two abstained”
The parliament referred to in this quotation is that of 
(a)  Kuwait         (b) Iran        (c) Bahrain  (d) Saudi Arabia 
51. The parliament can make any law for the whole or any part India for implementing International treaties
(a) with the consent of all the State 
(b)with the consent of the majority of states 
(c) with the consent of the States concerned  
(d) without the consent of any State
52. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?
(a) A money Bill can be tabled in either House of parliament  
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not   
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration
53. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the 
(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the under employed men and women in rural area 
(b) generatoion of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work durig the lean agricultural reason  
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the Country 
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person equality before law and equal protection without discrimination 
54. The speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak.  This phenomenon is known as
(a) decorum      (b) crossing the floor  (c) interpellation  (d) yielding the floor
55. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India
(a) He is appointed by the President of India  
(b) He must have the same qualification as are required for a judge of the Supreme Court 
(c) He must be a member of either House of Parliament  
(d) He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament 
which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2        (b) 1 and 3  (c) 2,3 and 4  (d) 3 and  4
56. Consider the following functionaries 
1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner 
3. Union Cabinet Minister 
4. Chief Justice of India
There correct sequence in the Order of Precedence  is 
(a) 3421  (b) 4312   (c) 4321  (d) 3412
57. The Primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to 

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